ATI LPN
LPN Nursing Fundamentals
1. A client with a new diagnosis of anemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of foods high in iron.
- B. You should decrease your intake of foods high in calcium.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
- D. You should increase your intake of high-fat foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of foods high in iron.' This statement should be included in the teaching because increasing intake of foods high in iron is essential for managing anemia. Iron is a key component for producing hemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood. By increasing iron-rich foods like leafy greens, red meat, and fortified cereals, the client can help improve their hemoglobin levels and overall health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of foods high in calcium is not necessary for anemia management; avoiding foods that contain gluten is relevant for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, not anemia; and increasing intake of high-fat foods is not recommended for managing anemia.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6 liters/minute if the client is short of breath.
- B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough frequently.
- C. Use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate.
- D. Encourage the client to remove the oxygen when eating or drinking.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the appropriate intervention for clients with COPD receiving oxygen therapy. High flow rates can lead to respiratory depression in COPD patients. This intervention helps maintain a safe and controlled oxygen delivery to prevent potential complications associated with high oxygen flow rates.
3. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to prevent the complication of pulmonary embolism?
- A. Encourage ambulation as tolerated.
- B. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
- C. Apply cold compresses to the affected area.
- D. Encourage the use of incentive spirometry.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is crucial in preventing the complication of pulmonary embolism in clients with deep vein thrombosis. Anticoagulants help prevent the formation of new clots and the enlargement of existing ones, thereby reducing the risk of a pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation as tolerated is beneficial for preventing complications related to immobility, but it is not the primary intervention to prevent pulmonary embolism in this case. Applying cold compresses to the affected area may help with pain and swelling but does not address the prevention of pulmonary embolism. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry is more relevant in preventing respiratory complications such as atelectasis, not specifically pulmonary embolism.
4. Warning signs that indicate dehydration include all EXCEPT:
- A. Poor skin turgor
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Eager to drink
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased urine output is not a warning sign of dehydration; it typically decreases with dehydration. Dehydration often presents with poor skin turgor, tachycardia, and an increased sensation of thirst (eager to drink) as the body tries to compensate for fluid loss. Choices A, C, and D are all correct warning signs of dehydration. Poor skin turgor is a result of decreased skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Tachycardia, an elevated heart rate, can be a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in dehydration. Feeling eager to drink is a common symptom of dehydration as the body attempts to restore fluid balance.
5. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
- B. Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin shortens the course of therapy.
- C. The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin.
- D. Ciprofloxacin treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.
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