Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?

• A. Wipe from front to back after urination
• B. Drink 2-3 liters of water per day
• C. Avoid holding urine for long periods
• D. Wear loose-fitting underwear

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Wheezing
• D. Peripheral cyanosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• B. Glucose 50 mg/dL
• C. Bilirubin 4 mg/dL
• D. Platelets 200,000/mm³

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypertension. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium and water retention, leading to increased blood pressure. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, it can elevate blood sugar levels. Hyperkalemia is also not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; instead, it can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels.

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