ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of sildenafil. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It should not be taken with nitrates
- B. Monitor for headaches
- C. It is a prescription medication
- D. It may have side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for headaches when taking sildenafil. This medication can cause headaches and other side effects, so it is crucial to inform clients about these potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as sildenafil is a prescription medication, not an over-the-counter one. Choice D is incorrect because sildenafil, like any medication, can have side effects that should be discussed with the client.
2. A client who is 8 hours postpartum asks the nurse if she will need to receive Rh immune globulin. The client is gravida 2, para 2, and her blood type is AB negative. The newborn’s blood type is B positive. Which of the following statements is appropriate?
- A. You only need to receive Rh immune globulin if you have a positive blood type.
- B. You should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery.
- C. Both you and your baby should receive Rh immune globulin at your 6-week appointment.
- D. Immune globulin is not necessary since this is your second pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to an Rh-positive baby should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery to prevent the development of antibodies in future pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative individuals are the ones who require Rh immune globulin. Choice C is incorrect as the administration of Rh immune globulin is time-sensitive and not typically scheduled for a 6-week appointment. Choice D is incorrect because Rh immune globulin is necessary to prevent sensitization regardless of the number of pregnancies.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
- A. Assess blood pressure
- B. Check heart rate
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Review the medication order
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the heart rate first before administering digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that directly affects the heart, so it is crucial to ensure that the heart rate is within the appropriate range before giving the dose. If the heart rate is below 60 bpm, administering digoxin could lead to toxicity. Assessing blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not the first priority when preparing to administer digoxin. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice C) is also crucial for patients on digoxin, but it is not the initial step. Reviewing the medication order (Choice D) is necessary but can be done after checking the heart rate.
4. A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?
- A. Kegel exercises
- B. Isometric exercises
- C. Circumduction exercises
- D. Uterine extension exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
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