a nurse is teaching a client about the use of metformin which of the following should be included
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A client is being taught about the use of metformin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metformin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice A is the correct answer as taking metformin with meals can help reduce the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal side effects like diarrhea and nausea, which are common side effects of metformin. Choice B is incorrect because metformin actually helps lower blood sugar levels and does not cause hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is usually taken twice or even three times a day, not just once daily. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is an oral medication, not an injectable one.

2. A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, should be avoided in clients with asthma as it can cause bronchoconstriction due to its beta2-blocking effects. Therefore, a client history finding of asthma would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription. Hypertension, tachydysrhythmias, and urolithiasis are not contraindications for propranolol use, making them incorrect choices. For clients with asthma, a beta1 selective blocker would be preferred to avoid exacerbating bronchoconstriction.

3. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and has a maternal history of methadone use during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of neonatal abstinence syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An excessive high-pitched cry is a classic sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome, indicating withdrawal from substances such as methadone. Neonates with neonatal abstinence syndrome often display irritability, tremors, and feeding difficulties. Hyporeactivity, acrocyanosis, and a respiratory rate of 50/min are not typical manifestations of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Hyporeactivity is more associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or sepsis, acrocyanosis is a common finding in newborns due to immature peripheral circulation, and a respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn.

4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

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