Nursing Elites

1. What are the complications of untreated pneumonia?

• A. Sepsis and respiratory failure
• B. Heart failure and kidney failure
• C. Pulmonary embolism and electrolyte imbalance
• D. Liver failure and electrolyte imbalance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sepsis and respiratory failure. Untreated pneumonia can lead to severe complications such as sepsis, which is a life-threatening response to infection, and respiratory failure, where the lungs can no longer provide enough oxygen to the body. Heart failure and kidney failure (choice B) are not direct complications of untreated pneumonia. Pulmonary embolism and electrolyte imbalance (choice C) are also not commonly associated with untreated pneumonia. Liver failure and electrolyte imbalance (choice D) are not typical complications of pneumonia.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

3. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
• B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase intake of dairy products
• D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Glucose
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.

5. When a nurse questions a medication prescription as too extreme due to a client's advanced age and unstable status, this action exemplifies which ethical principle?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-maleficence. Non-maleficence refers to the ethical principle of avoiding harm. In this scenario, the nurse questions the medication prescription to prevent potential harm to the client, demonstrating the principle of non-maleficence. Choice A, fidelity, pertains to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not the focus of the scenario. Choice B, autonomy, relates to respecting a client's right to make decisions about their care, not the nurse's actions. Choice C, justice, involves fairness and equal treatment, which is not directly applicable to the nurse questioning a medication prescription to prevent harm.

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