Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.

2. A client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The contractions are occurring every 45 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180 beats/min. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• B. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When contractions occur every 45 seconds with a high fetal heart rate, it indicates uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. In this situation, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued immediately to prevent further complications. Increasing or maintaining the infusion would worsen the hyperstimulation and distress. Decreasing the infusion may not be sufficient to address the current situation and could still lead to complications.

3. A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Increased urination
• C. Tremors
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Blood glucose 120 mg/dL
• B. pH 7.32
• C. HCO3 25 mEq/L
• D. PaCO2 48 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pH of 7.32 indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, bicarbonate levels are often low, and there is a compensatory respiratory response leading to a decrease in PaCO2. Option A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is within the normal range and not indicative of DKA. Option C is incorrect because an HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L is not typically seen in DKA where bicarbonate levels are usually lower. Option D is incorrect because a PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg would not be expected in DKA; it would typically be lower due to compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

5. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Urinary output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

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