Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with signs of delirium, which factor should be the nurse's priority in determining the cause?

• A. Medication history
• B. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
• C. Psychosocial stressors
• D. Environmental factors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a client with signs of delirium, the priority in determining the cause should be focusing on fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Delirium can often be linked to imbalances in these essential elements, making it crucial to address them promptly. While medication history, psychosocial stressors, and environmental factors can also contribute to delirium, they should be assessed after addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances due to their immediate impact on cognitive function.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing ptosis?

• A. Drooping eyelids
• B. Unequal pupils
• C. Facial twitching
• D. Facial droop

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Drooping eyelids.' Ptosis, characterized by drooping of the eyelid, is a classic symptom seen in myasthenia gravis. This occurs due to muscle weakness, particularly in the muscles that control eyelid movement. Choice B, 'Unequal pupils,' is not associated with ptosis and may indicate other neurological issues. Choice C, 'Facial twitching,' is not a typical sign of ptosis but could be related to other conditions like nerve irritation. Choice D, 'Facial droop,' is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the facial nerve, like Bell's palsy, and is not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

4. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
• B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
• C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
• D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase sodium intake
• B. Reduce sodium intake to less than 1,500 mg per day
• C. Limit caffeine intake
• D. Increase caffeine intake to improve focus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Reduce sodium intake to less than 1,500 mg per day.' For clients with hypertension, reducing sodium intake is crucial as it helps manage blood pressure. High sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because increasing sodium intake would worsen hypertension. Choice C is also correct as limiting caffeine intake is beneficial for managing hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as increasing caffeine intake can elevate blood pressure, which is detrimental for clients with hypertension.

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