a nurse is assessing a client with signs of delirium which factor should be the nurses priority in determining the cause
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ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. When assessing a client with signs of delirium, which factor should be the nurse's priority in determining the cause?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a client with signs of delirium, the priority in determining the cause should be focusing on fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Delirium can often be linked to imbalances in these essential elements, making it crucial to address them promptly. While medication history, psychosocial stressors, and environmental factors can also contribute to delirium, they should be assessed after addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances due to their immediate impact on cognitive function.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data from a preschooler. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A heart rate of 146/min is abnormal for a preschooler and indicates tachycardia, which should be reported to the provider. Choices A, B, and C fall within normal ranges for a preschooler's heart rate (80-120/min) and respiratory rate (22-34/min), so they do not require immediate reporting. Option D is the correct answer as it deviates significantly from the normal range and may indicate an underlying health issue that needs attention.

3. A client who is to undergo a colonoscopy is being taught by a nurse about the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. During a colonoscopy, clients are typically sedated, so they do not feel any pain during the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Clients are usually required to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before a colonoscopy, and there are specific dietary restrictions that need to be followed before the procedure to ensure a successful examination.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.

5. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and continuing the IV can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Increasing the IV flow rate is not indicated and may worsen the inflammation. Monitoring for signs of infection is important, but the priority is to remove the source of inflammation by discontinuing the IV.

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