Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a suspected stroke?

• A. Monitor for changes in neurological status and administer thrombolytics
• B. Monitor for speech difficulties and administer oxygen
• C. Provide IV fluids and monitor blood pressure
• D. Administer pain relief and monitor for respiratory failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When managing a patient with a suspected stroke, it is crucial to monitor for changes in neurological status as this can provide important information about the patient's condition. Administering thrombolytics, if indicated, is a critical intervention in the acute phase of an ischemic stroke to help dissolve blood clots and restore blood flow to the brain. This choice is the correct answer because it addresses the immediate management needs of a patient with a suspected stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while monitoring for speech difficulties, administering oxygen, providing IV fluids, monitoring blood pressure, administering pain relief, and monitoring for respiratory failure are important aspects of patient care, they are not the primary interventions for managing a suspected stroke.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to transfer a client who has had a stroke and is at risk for falling to a rehabilitation facility. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the transfer report?

• A. The client's urination habits.
• B. The client's financial information.
• C. The client's social history.
• D. The client's current level of mobility.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's current level of mobility is essential to be included in the transfer report for the rehabilitation facility to develop an appropriate care plan. Understanding the client's mobility status helps in determining the level of assistance and interventions needed to prevent falls and promote safe rehabilitation. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the client's immediate care needs during the transfer to the rehabilitation facility, making them less relevant for the transfer report.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who is prescribed aspirin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. A history of gastrointestinal bleeding
• B. A history of hypertension
• C. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• D. A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding are at increased risk of complications when taking aspirin due to its effects on platelet function and the gastrointestinal tract. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risk associated with aspirin use in patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding, making them less relevant in this scenario. While monitoring platelet count and PT are important in patients taking aspirin, a history of gastrointestinal bleeding takes precedence as it directly impacts the safety and effectiveness of aspirin therapy in this client.

4. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
• C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.

5. What is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Irritability
• C. Hypotension
• D. Decreased oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions accumulate in the airway, it can lead to discomfort and irritability in the client. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation are usually later signs of inadequate airway clearance and oxygenation. Bradycardia may indicate severe hypoxia, while hypotension and decreased oxygen saturation are consequences of prolonged airway obstruction.

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