a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test which of the following statements shou
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PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make is choice B, 'You should expect the test to take about 30 minutes.' The nonstress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring fetal heart rate in response to movements. Choice A is incorrect because medications are not typically administered during a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for the client to fast before the test. Choice D is incorrect because determining fetal lung maturity is usually done through other tests, not the nonstress test.

2. A newborn demonstrates respiratory distress, and routine suctioning with the bulb syringe is unsuccessful. What is the next nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When routine suctioning with a bulb syringe is unsuccessful in a newborn demonstrating respiratory distress, the next appropriate nursing intervention is to suction with a mechanical device. This method ensures effective removal of any airway obstruction. Initiating chest compressions (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the primary concern is airway clearance. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary, but addressing the airway obstruction should take precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be considered after attempting mechanical suction if the newborn's condition does not improve.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

5. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.

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