Nursing Elites

1. During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?

• A. Maternal fever
• B. Fetal heart failure
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia
• D. Fetal head compression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maternal fever can lead to fetal tachycardia due to the transmission of maternal fever to the fetus. This can result in an increased fetal heart rate, making it the correct potential cause in this scenario. Fetal heart failure (choice B) would typically present with bradycardia rather than tachycardia, making it an incorrect choice. Maternal hypoglycemia (choice C) is more likely to cause fetal distress rather than tachycardia. Fetal head compression (choice D) may lead to decelerations in the fetal heart rate pattern, but not necessarily tachycardia.

2. A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?

• A. The client's room number
• B. The client's telephone number
• C. The client's birth date
• D. The client's medical record number

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not an appropriate method for client identification in healthcare settings. It can lead to confusion and potential errors, especially in a busy environment like a postpartum unit. Room numbers are not unique to individual patients and can change frequently. Instead, healthcare providers should use more reliable and specific identifiers like the client's name, medical record number, or date of birth to ensure accurate identification and safe administration of medications. Choices B, C, and D are more appropriate secondary identifiers for client identification as they are more specific and less prone to errors than room numbers.

3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?

• A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
• B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
• C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
• D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

4. A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Cholecystitis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Migraine headaches
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cholecystitis is a correct answer. A history of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis, is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. Hypertension is a correct answer. Hypertension is also a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications. Migraine headaches are a correct answer. A history of migraine headaches is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, especially for those with aura. Selecting 'All of the above' is correct as all the mentioned conditions (cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches) are contraindications for oral contraceptives. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are incorrect choices as they are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives.

5. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Reduced menstrual flow
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.

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