ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A client who is being admitted for induction of labor is receiving teaching about newborn safety from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will check the identification badge of anyone who removes my baby from our room.
- B. I should include a photo of my baby along with any public birth announcements on social media.
- C. I will allow my baby to sleep on the bed in my room when I am in the shower.
- D. I should expect the nurses to carry my baby in their arms to the nursery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the client should verify the identification badge of anyone removing their baby to ensure the infant's safety and prevent abduction. This statement demonstrates an understanding of the importance of strict identification protocols in the hospital setting. Choice B is incorrect because including a photo of the baby in public announcements does not relate to newborn safety teaching. Choice C is incorrect as it is unsafe to allow a baby to sleep on the bed unsupervised. Choice D is incorrect because nurses typically encourage parents to carry their baby to the nursery themselves for bonding and security reasons.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lip-smacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.
3. A 4-year-old boy with a tracheostomy tube is experiencing respiratory distress. He has intercostal retractions, a heart rate of 80 beats/min, and an oxygen saturation of 85%. During his attempts to breathe, a gurgling sound is heard in the tracheostomy tube. You should:
- A. Ventilate through the tracheostomy tube.
- B. Place an oxygen mask over the tracheostomy tube.
- C. Remove the tracheostomy tube and clean it.
- D. Carefully suction the tracheostomy tube.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the 4-year-old boy with a tracheostomy tube is showing signs of respiratory distress, including intercostal retractions, a low heart rate, and decreased oxygen saturation. The gurgling sound indicates a possible airway obstruction. Correctly, the immediate action should be to carefully suction the tracheostomy tube. Suctioning can help clear any secretions or obstructions, thus improving the child's ability to breathe effectively. Ventilating through the tube, placing an oxygen mask over it, or removing and cleaning the tube would not address the potential obstruction and could worsen the respiratory distress.
4. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.
5. A client has a new diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- B. You should decrease your intake of high-sodium foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a client with nephrotic syndrome, decreasing the intake of high-sodium foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms of the condition. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid retention, swelling, and worsen the condition. Therefore, advising the client to decrease their high-sodium food intake aligns with the dietary management approach to help control nephrotic syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing high-sodium foods would exacerbate fluid retention, avoiding lactose is not specifically required for nephrotic syndrome, and increasing dairy products may not be necessary unless individualized based on the client's needs and lab values.
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