ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. When educating a patient about gabapentin use, what should the nurse include?
- A. It can cause sedation
- B. It can be taken with alcohol
- C. It is a pain reliever
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause sedation.' Gabapentin is known to cause sedation, and patients should be advised about this side effect, especially regarding activities that require alertness. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin should not be taken with alcohol as it can increase the risk of central nervous system depression. Choice C is incorrect because while gabapentin is used to treat nerve pain, it is not classified as a traditional pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as dizziness, drowsiness, and fatigue.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in seclusion when she is confused
- B. Request a prescription for PRN restraints when the client is wandering
- C. Dim the lighting in the client’s room
- D. Leave one side rail up on the client's bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to leave one side rail up on the client's bed. This action can help prevent falls while allowing the client to get up safely when needed, reducing the risk of injury from wandering. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not appropriate as it can lead to increased agitation and distress. Requesting restraints (Choice B) should be avoided as it can increase the risk of injuries and is not recommended for clients with Alzheimer's. Dimming the lighting (Choice C) may increase confusion and disorientation in clients with Alzheimer's disease.
3. What is the first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection?
- A. Change the dressing every 12 hours
- B. Perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics
- C. Cleanse the wound with normal saline
- D. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the specific infecting organism and determine the most effective antibiotic therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changing the dressing, cleansing the wound, or applying a wet-to-dry dressing should only be done after obtaining the culture results and starting appropriate antibiotic treatment.
4. How is the enzyme trypsin activated?
- A. By zymogen.
- B. By bile.
- C. By gastrin.
- D. By enterokinase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: By enterokinase. Trypsin is activated by enterokinase, an enzyme secreted by the small intestine. Enterokinase plays a crucial role in converting trypsinogen into its active form, trypsin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because trypsin is specifically activated by enterokinase, not by zymogen, bile, or gastrin.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
- A. 4 g sodium diet
- B. Potassium-restricted diet
- C. High phosphorus diet
- D. High protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty regulating potassium levels in their blood. A potassium-restricted diet helps prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication in these clients. High sodium diet (Choice A) is typically avoided in kidney disease to prevent fluid retention and high blood pressure. High phosphorus diet (Choice C) is usually restricted in kidney disease as elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and heart problems. While protein is important for overall health, a high protein diet (Choice D) can put extra strain on the kidneys and is usually limited in chronic kidney disease.
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