Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about QSEN. What statement by an employee should the nurse manager identify as quality improvement?

• A. We should track the rate of hospital-acquired infections.
• B. We should evaluate patient satisfaction scores.
• C. We should start tracking how soon patients are discharged after laparoscopic versus open surgery.
• D. We should check the patient's temperature before discharge.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. QSEN focuses on quality improvement in healthcare. Tracking how soon patients are discharged after different types of surgeries helps in evaluating the quality of care provided and identifying areas for improvement. Choices A and B focus on monitoring outcomes but do not directly relate to quality improvement initiatives. Choice D is more about a routine assessment before discharge and does not involve a quality improvement process.

2. A nurse is teaching about measures to promote sleep for a client with insomnia. What statement indicates understanding?

• A. I should reduce my fluid intake to 2 hours before bedtime
• B. I will watch TV in bed before sleeping
• C. I can take long naps during the day
• D. I should exercise right before going to bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reducing fluid intake to 2-4 hours before sleeping helps prevent interruptions during the night, promoting better sleep. Watching TV in bed before sleeping (choice B) can actually hinder sleep due to the stimulation from screens. Taking long naps during the day (choice C) can disrupt the natural sleep-wake cycle. Exercising right before going to bed (choice D) can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

3. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?

• A. Paradoxical pulse
• B. Dependent edema
• C. Pericardial friction rub
• D. Substernal chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Paradoxical pulse. Paradoxical pulse, which is a significant drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration, indicates cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis. This finding requires immediate attention as it suggests potential compromised cardiac function. Choices B, C, and D are associated with pericarditis but do not indicate the same level of urgency as paradoxical pulse.

5. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• B. Rheumatoid factor
• C. Antinuclear antibody
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

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