ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?
- A. Gravida 3, Para 2
- B. Gravida 3, Para 3
- C. Gravida 4, Para 2
- D. Gravida 4, Para 3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection. Which infection control measure should the nurse implement?
- A. Wear a face shield when entering the room
- B. Place the client in a private room
- C. Place the client in a negative pressure room
- D. Use alcohol-based hand rub following client care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a private room. Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection requires contact precautions, which include isolating the client in a private room to prevent the spread of infection to others. Wearing a face shield may be necessary in certain situations for protection but is not the primary measure for C. diff. Placing the client in a negative pressure room is not specifically indicated for C. diff unless the client has additional respiratory issues. Using alcohol-based hand rub following client care is not sufficient for C. diff control; thorough handwashing with soap and water is recommended due to the spore-forming nature of C. diff.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions from the provider should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Call the provider if the client’s respiratory rate is less than 18/min
- B. Administer 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
- C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
- D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for clients with congestive heart failure to help reduce blood pressure and fluid overload. Option A is incorrect as in congestive heart failure, a lower respiratory rate could be a sign of worsening condition and needs immediate attention rather than waiting to call the provider. Option B is incorrect as administering a large IV bolus of sodium chloride could exacerbate fluid overload in a client with heart failure. Option D is incorrect as a pulse rate lower than 80/min may not necessarily indicate a problem in a client with congestive heart failure.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine for severe pain. What is the priority assessment the professional should make before administration?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Heart rate
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering morphine, the priority assessment the healthcare professional should make is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature are important as well, but they are not the priority when administering morphine for severe pain.
5. When educating a patient on the use of levodopa-carbidopa, which information should the nurse include?
- A. It is a cure for Parkinson's disease
- B. Monitor for dyskinesia
- C. It can be taken at any time
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Levodopa-carbidopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, which is characterized by involuntary muscle movements. Patients need to be monitored for this adverse effect and instructed to report it to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because levodopa-carbidopa is not a cure for Parkinson's disease, it should be taken at specific times for optimal effect, and it does have side effects, such as dyskinesia.
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