Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

• A. Gravida 3, Para 2
• B. Gravida 3, Para 3
• C. Gravida 4, Para 2
• D. Gravida 4, Para 3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse do before administration?

• A. Check potassium levels
• B. Assess blood glucose levels
• C. Monitor respiratory rate
• D. Administer with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check potassium levels before administering furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to electrolyte imbalance. Assessing blood glucose levels (choice B) is not directly related to furosemide administration. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice C) is important in certain situations, but it is not the priority before administering furosemide. Administering furosemide with food (choice D) is not a requirement as it can be administered regardless of meals.

3. A client who has been prescribed oral contraception receives education from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further education?

• A. If I miss one pill, I'll take it as soon as possible
• B. If I miss two pills, I'll double up for two days
• C. If I miss three pills, I'll double up each day until back on schedule
• D. I'll use an alternative form of contraception if I miss more than two pills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct course of action after missing oral contraceptive pills depends on how many pills are missed. If three pills are missed, the client should not 'double up' but rather follow the manufacturer's instructions and use an alternative form of contraception until the next cycle. Taking too many pills at once increases the risk of side effects without restoring contraceptive protection. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of the correct actions to take after missing a pill or two, emphasizing the importance of not doubling up but following specific guidelines to maintain effectiveness and safety.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Wheezing
• D. Peripheral cyanosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?

• A. Periodic tingling of fingers
• B. Absence of clonus
• C. Leg cramps
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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