a nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time the client delivered two full term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.

2. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.' In kosher dietary practices, it is essential to keep meat and dairy products separate. Mixing meat and dairy is prohibited, and there are specific guidelines for the preparation and consumption of each. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in kosher practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not consumed in a kosher diet. Choice D is also inaccurate as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah in kosher dietary practices.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 kg/day suggests fluid overload, a possible complication of TPN. This requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not indicative of immediate complications related to TPN. A low prealbumin level may indicate malnutrition but does not require immediate intervention. A slightly elevated temperature and blood glucose level are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate action.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to increase the risk of bleeding, so clients should be monitored for this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is not typically associated with causing drowsiness. Choice B is not a specific consideration for aspirin use; it is not necessary to take it with food. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin is not considered safe during pregnancy and should be avoided, especially in the third trimester, as it may cause complications for the mother and the baby.

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