Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. After drawing up the medication, the nurse accidentally brushes the needle on the counter's surface. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Prepare a new dose of insulin injection
• B. Administer the insulin as it is
• C. Wipe the needle with an alcohol swab
• D. Ask the provider for guidance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to prepare a new dose of insulin injection. Accidentally brushing the needle on a contaminated surface can lead to infection risk. Administering the insulin as it is or just wiping the needle with an alcohol swab would not be sufficient to eliminate the risk of infection. Asking the provider for guidance is not necessary in this situation as the nurse can independently take the appropriate action to ensure patient safety.

2. What are the differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of treatment?

• A. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Lifestyle modifications and oral agents
• B. Type 1: Oral agents; Type 2: Insulin therapy
• C. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
• D. Type 1: Exercise and diet; Type 2: Insulin only

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Type 1 diabetes necessitates insulin therapy, whereas Type 2 diabetes is managed with lifestyle modifications and oral agents. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes does not use oral agents as a primary treatment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the pathophysiology of diabetes types rather than their treatments. Choice D is incorrect because Type 2 diabetes management involves more than just insulin and includes lifestyle changes and oral medications.

3. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

5. A client takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Gastric ulcer formation
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.

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