ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A client at 20 weeks of gestation is being taught by a nurse about an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. This test is used to confirm pregnancy
- B. This test is used to detect neural tube defects
- C. This test will determine the baby's lung maturity
- D. This test will check for gestational diabetes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test is used to detect neural tube defects.' An alpha-fetoprotein test is essential for screening neural tube defects in the fetus, not for confirming pregnancy, determining lung maturity, or checking for gestational diabetes. Detecting neural tube defects is crucial for early intervention and management of potential health issues in the baby.
2. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
3. A nurse at a long-term care facility is transcribing new prescriptions for four clients. Which of the following prescriptions is accurately transcribed by the nurse?
- A. KCl 10 mEq PO once daily
- B. KCl 20 mEq PO once daily
- C. Potassium gluconate PO
- D. Potassium chloride 20 mEq PO every morning
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it accurately transcribes the prescription by specifying the medication (Potassium chloride), the dose (20 mEq), the route (PO for by mouth), and the frequency (every morning). Choice A is incorrect as it specifies a lower dose compared to the correct prescription. Choice B is incorrect due to an inaccurate dose. Choice C is incorrect as it lacks specificity regarding the type of potassium prescribed and the dose.
4. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?
- A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
- B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
- C. Monitor the site for signs of infection
- D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical-surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following should the nurse identify as a priority nursing assessment after reviewing the client's information?
- A. Level of consciousness.
- B. Skin turgor.
- C. Deep-tendon reflexes.
- D. Bowel sounds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Following a TURP procedure, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate potential postoperative complications such as hemorrhage or shock. Skin turgor (choice B) is more related to hydration status, deep-tendon reflexes (choice C) are not the priority post-TURP, and bowel sounds (choice D) are important but not the priority in this situation.
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