Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.7 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.0 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Calculation: 8000 units / 10,000 units per mL = 0.8 mL. To correctly administer the prescribed dose of 8000 units, the healthcare professional should draw up 0.8 mL from the 10,000 units/mL vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the available concentration of heparin.

2. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?

• A. Cesarean birth
• B. Vaginal birth
• C. Anemia
• D. Multiparity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.

3. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client who has a fractured femur and reports sharp chest pain.
• B. The client who has a fever and is receiving antibiotics.
• C. The client who has a urinary tract infection and reports pain with urination.
• D. The client who is scheduled for surgery in the afternoon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

• A. Monitor for polyuria
• B. Monitor for diaphoresis
• C. Monitor for abdominal pain
• D. Monitor for thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for diaphoresis.' Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. It indicates a low blood sugar level and should prompt immediate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly linked to hyperglycemia, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia.

5. A nurse in a provider’s office is interviewing a client who is requesting an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client’s history is a contraindication to the use of combination oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Impaired liver function is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives. The liver metabolizes hormones, and any impairment can affect the metabolism of hormones, potentially leading to imbalances or toxicity. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives.

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