Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.7 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.0 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Calculation: 8000 units / 10,000 units per mL = 0.8 mL. To correctly administer the prescribed dose of 8000 units, the healthcare professional should draw up 0.8 mL from the 10,000 units/mL vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the available concentration of heparin.

2. A nurse is reviewing dietary assessment findings for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover
• B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet
• C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately
• D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to kosher dietary laws, meat and dairy products cannot be consumed together. This practice stems from the prohibition in Jewish law against cooking a young animal in its mother's milk. Therefore, the nurse should expect to find that meat and dairy products are eaten separately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Leavened bread is not eaten during Passover (Choice A), shellfish is not consumed in the kosher diet (Choice B), and fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah (Choice D).

3. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

4. Which of the following characteristics would indicate true labor in a client?

• A. Contractions are irregular and painless
• B. Fetus moves to an anterior position
• C. Bloody show is not present
• D. Contractions are regular in frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. True labor is characterized by regular contractions that increase in intensity and frequency. These contractions lead to cervical dilation and effacement, signaling the onset of labor. Choice A is incorrect because true labor contractions are regular and painful, not irregular and painless. Choice B is irrelevant to determining true labor. Choice C is also unrelated as the presence or absence of a bloody show does not definitively indicate true labor.

5. A nurse is assessing a 1-hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Take vital signs
• B. Assess lochia
• C. Massage the fundus
• D. Give oxytocin IV bolus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a 1-hour postpartum client with a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus, it indicates uterine atony. The first action the nurse should take is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which will reduce bleeding and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Taking vital signs, assessing lochia, or administering an oxytocin IV bolus are important interventions but should come after addressing uterine atony through fundal massage.

Similar Questions