a nurse is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g im to a client who has a pelvic infection which of the following actions should the nurse plan to t
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ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

3. A hypertensive client who has been taking metoprolol (Lopressor) has been prescribed to decrease the dose of the medication. The client asks the nurse why this must be done over a period of 1 to 2 weeks. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that abrupt withdrawal could affect the client in which way?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to rebound hypertension, causing a sudden increase in blood pressure due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Gradually tapering the dose helps the body adjust and reduces the risk of this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stopping metoprolol suddenly is not known to result in hypoglycemia, insomnia, or enhanced side effects of other medications.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heat intolerance. Heat intolerance is a sign of levothyroxine toxicity and requires immediate attention. Weight loss may actually be an expected outcome of levothyroxine therapy as it can help regulate metabolism in hypothyroidism. Insomnia can occur as a side effect of levothyroxine but is not as concerning as heat intolerance. Dry skin is a common symptom of hypothyroidism and may improve with levothyroxine therapy, so it is not a priority finding to report to the provider.

5. A client has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You may experience weight gain.' Prednisone commonly causes weight gain as a side effect, so it is important for the client to be aware of this potential outcome. Monitoring weight changes can be essential in managing the medication's effects and overall health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing vitamin K intake is not specifically related to prednisone use. Expecting increased urinary output is not a common side effect of prednisone. Dark, tarry stools are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal bleeding rather than prednisone use.

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