ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
- B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
- D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.
2. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction (MI). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
- A. Avoid engaging in sexual activity for at least 6 weeks.
- B. Engage in moderate physical activity daily.
- C. Take prescribed medications even if you feel well.
- D. Return to work only when medically cleared.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client after a myocardial infarction is to continue taking prescribed medications even if they feel well. This is essential in preventing another myocardial infarction or other complications. Discontinuing medications prematurely can be detrimental to the client's recovery and may increase the risk of further cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because engaging in sexual activity, physical activity, or returning to work are important aspects of the client's recovery, but not as crucial as ensuring medication compliance to prevent further cardiac issues.
3. A client has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin patches. Which of the following instructions should be included for proper use?
- A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
- B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints.
- C. Keep the patch on 24 hours per day.
- D. Replace the patch every 72 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing the nitroglycerin patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints is crucial to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Placing the patch on skin folds or joints can interfere with absorption, potentially reducing the patch's efficacy. Therefore, it is essential to follow this instruction to maximize the therapeutic benefits of the nitroglycerin patches. The other options are incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to skin irritation, keeping the patch on 24 hours per day may not be necessary depending on the specific patch instructions, and replacing the patch every 72 hours is not the standard frequency for nitroglycerin patches.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.
5. A client diagnosed with hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hypotension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by lowering blood pressure. A common side effect of atenolol is hypotension, where blood pressure drops too low. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypotension to prevent any complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tachycardia (fast heart rate), dry mouth, and increased appetite are not common side effects of atenolol. Hypotension is the expected side effect due to the medication's mechanism of action.
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