Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
• B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
• D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

2. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Apical pulse
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.

3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with a diagnosis of heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is serum potassium. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial when a client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac complications, such as arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure the safe administration of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are also important laboratory values to monitor in clients with heart failure, but they are not directly associated with the risk of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring these values helps in assessing overall health status, fluid balance, and metabolic functions in the client.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). The nurse should teach the client about which potential side effect?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like simvastatin and can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis is a severe condition where muscle fibers break down rapidly, releasing myoglobin into the bloodstream, which can lead to kidney damage. Therefore, it's important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect and to promptly report any muscle pain to the healthcare provider. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not commonly associated with simvastatin use and are less concerning compared to the risk of rhabdomyolysis.

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