ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
- B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
- D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.
2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Store the medication in a cool, dark place.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin is to take the medication at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that helps relax blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing the workload of the heart. Taking it at the onset of chest pain helps alleviate angina symptoms quickly and effectively. Storing the medication in a cool, dark place (Choice A) is not a critical instruction for this medication. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice B) or on an empty stomach (Choice C) is not relevant to the administration of nitroglycerin for angina relief.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amiodarone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Dry skin
- B. Weight loss
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Productive cough
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious side effect of amiodarone, and should be reported. Dry skin is not typically associated with amiodarone use. Weight loss is a common side effect of amiodarone but not generally a cause for concern unless severe. Bradycardia is a known side effect of amiodarone and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless symptomatic.
4. A client has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime.
- D. Avoid dairy products while taking the medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking alendronate is to take it with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. This helps ensure proper absorption and reduces the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choice B is incorrect because patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice C is incorrect as alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid dairy products while taking alendronate.
5. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.
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