Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

2. The nurse is planning measures to decrease the incidence of chest pain for a client with angina pectoris. What intervention should the nurse do to effectively accomplish this goal?

• A. Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment.
• B. Encourage the family to visit very frequently.
• C. Encourage the client to call friends and relatives each day.
• D. Recommend that the client watch TV as a constant diversion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment. A calm and quiet environment can help reduce stress, which is beneficial in preventing the occurrence of chest pain in clients with angina. Choice B is incorrect because excessive or frequent visitations may lead to increased stress and agitation for the client. Choice C is incorrect as it may not always contribute to a calm environment and could potentially increase the client's stress levels. Choice D is inappropriate as watching TV constantly may not promote a quiet and low-stimulus environment, which is essential in managing angina pectoris.

3. The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Limit alcohol consumption to one drink per day.
• B. Increase sodium intake to maintain blood pressure.
• C. Exercise vigorously for at least 30 minutes daily.
• D. Avoid high potassium foods like bananas.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake is an essential lifestyle modification recommended for managing hypertension. Excessive alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure, so limiting it to one drink per day is beneficial in controlling hypertension. Alcohol moderation is a key part of a heart-healthy lifestyle for individuals with high blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can actually worsen hypertension by retaining water and increasing blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect because while exercise is important for overall health, moderate-intensity exercise is recommended for individuals with hypertension to avoid excessive strain on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because high potassium foods like bananas are actually beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help lower blood pressure.

4. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Dry cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. This adverse reaction can be bothersome to the client and may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Weight gain, hypokalemia, and increased appetite are not typically associated with lisinopril and would not be as concerning as a dry cough when assessing for adverse effects.

5. The healthcare provider is teaching a client about the use of nitroglycerin patches for angina pectoris. Which instruction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime to prevent tolerance
• C. Cover the patch with a bandage to keep it in place
• D. Rotate the application site every 24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rotating the application site every 24 hours is crucial when using nitroglycerin patches to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. By rotating the site, the risk of local skin reactions is reduced, and the effectiveness of the nitroglycerin patch is maintained. Applying the patch to the same site each day (Choice A) can lead to skin irritation. Removing the patch at bedtime (Choice B) is not necessary as long as the prescribed wearing schedule is followed. Covering the patch with a bandage (Choice C) is not recommended as it may interfere with proper absorption.

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