Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is being discharged on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will use fresh herbs and spices instead of salt.
• B. I will avoid canned soups and processed foods.
• C. I can eat as much bacon and sausage as I want because they taste good.
• D. I will read food labels to check for sodium content.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because bacon and sausage are high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet requirement. Consuming them freely would contribute to increased sodium intake, which is not suitable for managing hypertension. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate understanding and actions for a low-sodium diet, such as using alternatives to salt, avoiding processed foods, and checking food labels for sodium content.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Increased shortness of breath with exertion
• B. Improved tolerance to activity
• C. Decreased frequency of chest pain
• D. Stable blood pressure readings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

4. A client has a new prescription for amitriptyline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is prescribed amitriptyline, it is important to instruct them to take the medication with a full glass of water. This instruction helps prevent esophageal irritation, as amitriptyline can be harsh on the esophagus. Option C is the correct choice. Option A, taking the medication in the morning, is not specific to amitriptyline and can vary depending on the individual's condition. Option B, avoiding grapefruit juice, is a general precaution for many medications but not specifically related to amitriptyline. Option D, monitoring for signs of weight gain, is not a direct instruction for taking the medication itself and may not be a common side effect of amitriptyline.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Weight gain
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma. Tachycardia, an increased heart rate, can be a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating excessive stimulation of the beta receptors. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly to assess the need for further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and drowsiness are not typically associated with albuterol use and are less likely to require immediate reporting compared to tachycardia.

Similar Questions