a nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine which of the following should the nurse verify
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine. Which of the following should the nurse verify?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client's vaccination history. Before administering a pneumococcal vaccine, the nurse should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. Verifying the vaccination history helps prevent unnecessary vaccinations and ensures that the client receives the appropriate immunization at the right time. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of the pneumococcal vaccine. Checking for allergies to eggs may be important for other vaccines, but it is not specifically relevant to pneumococcal vaccination. The client's current medications and blood pressure are important for general health assessment but are not directly related to verifying the need for a pneumococcal vaccine.

2. A client with chronic renal failure needs dietary instructions. Which of the following should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to restrict protein intake. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, so limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste in the body. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not typically necessary unless there is a specific deficiency. Providing a diet high in potassium (Choice B) is contraindicated as potassium levels need to be monitored and controlled in renal failure. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the individual's condition, but restricting protein intake is a more critical dietary instruction for clients with chronic renal failure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and is experiencing opioid withdrawals. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate tremors of the extremities. In newborns experiencing opioid withdrawals, moderate tremors of the extremities are a common sign. Other signs of opioid withdrawal in newborns may include irritability, feeding difficulties, and gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice A, hypotonia, is not typically associated with opioid withdrawal in newborns. Choice C, an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (96.9°F), falls within the normal range for newborns and is not specifically indicative of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, excessive crying, is not a typical sign of opioid withdrawal in newborns.

5. A nurse is assessing a newborn whose mother had gestational diabetes. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jitteriness is a common sign of hypoglycemia in newborns. Other signs may include irritability, poor feeding, and lethargy. Choice A, Hypertonia, is not typically associated with hypoglycemia but rather with conditions like hypocalcemia. Acrocyanosis (Choice C) is a benign condition characterized by peripheral cyanosis and is not directly linked to hypoglycemia. Generalized petechiae (Choice D) are tiny red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding and are not specific to hypoglycemia.

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