Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine. Which of the following should the nurse verify?

• A. Client's allergy to eggs
• B. Client's current medications
• C. Client's vaccination history
• D. Client's blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client's vaccination history. Before administering a pneumococcal vaccine, the nurse should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. Verifying the vaccination history helps prevent unnecessary vaccinations and ensures that the client receives the appropriate immunization at the right time. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of the pneumococcal vaccine. Checking for allergies to eggs may be important for other vaccines, but it is not specifically relevant to pneumococcal vaccination. The client's current medications and blood pressure are important for general health assessment but are not directly related to verifying the need for a pneumococcal vaccine.

2. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Distended, board-like abdomen
• B. WBC count of 15,000/mm³
• C. Rebound tenderness over McBurney’s point
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen is a concerning sign indicating the possibility of a ruptured appendix and peritonitis, which are medical emergencies. Reporting this finding immediately is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, an elevated WBC count, could indicate infection but is not as urgent as the risk of a ruptured appendix. Choice C, rebound tenderness over McBurney’s point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate an immediate threat like a possible rupture. Choice D, a slightly elevated temperature, is a nonspecific finding and not as critical as the risk of peritonitis associated with a distended, board-like abdomen.

3. A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?

• A. History of anxiety
• B. Socioeconomic status
• C. Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone
• D. Support from family members

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum depression can be triggered by various factors, but one of the strongest predictors is a rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone levels following childbirth. These hormonal changes can affect mood regulation, making some women more vulnerable to depression during the postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are not direct risk factors associated with postpartum depression. While a history of anxiety may contribute, it is not as directly linked to the hormonal changes that occur postpartum. Socioeconomic status and support from family members may influence the overall well-being of the mother but are not specific risk factors for postpartum depression.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate IV
• B. Increase the magnesium sulfate infusion
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Administer hydralazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, administering calcium gluconate IV is crucial as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate helps reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate, especially when signs of toxicity like respiratory depression or loss of reflexes occur. Increasing the magnesium sulfate infusion would worsen toxicity. Administering IV fluids may be beneficial for hydration but does not address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Hydralazine is used to manage hypertension, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.

5. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Prepare the client for a thoracentesis
• C. Elevate the client’s lower extremities
• D. Administer anticoagulant therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.

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