a nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine which of the following should the nurse verify
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine. Which of the following should the nurse verify?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client's vaccination history. Before administering a pneumococcal vaccine, the nurse should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. Verifying the vaccination history helps prevent unnecessary vaccinations and ensures that the client receives the appropriate immunization at the right time. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of the pneumococcal vaccine. Checking for allergies to eggs may be important for other vaccines, but it is not specifically relevant to pneumococcal vaccination. The client's current medications and blood pressure are important for general health assessment but are not directly related to verifying the need for a pneumococcal vaccine.

2. A client who is Rh-negative is being taught about Rh (D) immune globulin by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because it reflects an understanding of Rh immune globulin administration. Rh immune globulin is given after delivery to prevent sensitization in future pregnancies, particularly if the baby is Rh-positive. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative partners do not affect the need for Rh immune globulin. Choice B is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is given if the baby is Rh-positive, not Rh-negative. Choice C is incorrect; there is no requirement to avoid immunizations after receiving Rh immune globulin.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of heroin use who is intoxicated. Which finding should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constricted pupils. Constricted pupils are a classic sign of opioid intoxication, including heroin. Opioids like heroin cause the pupils to constrict due to their effect on the autonomic nervous system. Dilated pupils, increased reflexes, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with opioid intoxication but may be seen with other substances or conditions.

5. A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Roast turkey is a lean protein option suitable for a low-fat diet. Rice pilaf and green beans are also low in fat. Choices A, B, and C contain high-fat ingredients like gravy, cheese, cream, and ice cream, which are not suitable for a low-fat diet.

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