a nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine which of the following should the nurse verify
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine. Which of the following should the nurse verify?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client's vaccination history. Before administering a pneumococcal vaccine, the nurse should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. Verifying the vaccination history helps prevent unnecessary vaccinations and ensures that the client receives the appropriate immunization at the right time. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of the pneumococcal vaccine. Checking for allergies to eggs may be important for other vaccines, but it is not specifically relevant to pneumococcal vaccination. The client's current medications and blood pressure are important for general health assessment but are not directly related to verifying the need for a pneumococcal vaccine.

2. A nurse is providing education to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy. What information should the nurse include regarding the cause of indigestion and heartburn?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Progesterone causes relaxation of the smooth muscles in the body, including the cardiac sphincter. This relaxation allows stomach acid to reflux into the esophagus, leading to heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the physiological mechanism that causes heartburn during pregnancy. Estrogen causing increased appetite (Choice A) is not directly linked to heartburn. HCG hormone increasing gastric acidity (Choice C) is not the primary cause of heartburn during pregnancy. The uterus compressing the stomach early in pregnancy (Choice D) may contribute to feelings of fullness or bloating but is not the main cause of heartburn.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.

5. When resolving a conflict, which statement made by the charge nurse is an example of smoothing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it exemplifies smoothing, a conflict resolution strategy where the charge nurse reassures the staff nurse of their capabilities. Choice B offers to take over the assignment, which is more of a compromising strategy. Choice C suggests switching assignments, which aligns with compromising rather than smoothing. Choice D proposes a discussion in a private setting, indicating a collaborating approach rather than smoothing.

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