Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor who is receiving oxytocin. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing contractions every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the oxytocin infusion
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Prepare for delivery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take in this situation is to stop the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 1 minute lasting 90 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress by compromising oxygen supply. Stopping the oxytocin infusion will help reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions, allowing for better fetal oxygenation. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary if there are signs of fetal distress, but stopping the oxytocin is the priority. Increasing IV fluid rate (Choice C) is not the appropriate action in response to hyperstimulation. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may eventually be necessary, the immediate action should be to address the hyperstimulation by stopping the oxytocin infusion.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Potassium levels
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.

3. A client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The contractions are occurring every 45 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180 beats/min. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• B. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When contractions occur every 45 seconds with a high fetal heart rate, it indicates uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. In this situation, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued immediately to prevent further complications. Increasing or maintaining the infusion would worsen the hyperstimulation and distress. Decreasing the infusion may not be sufficient to address the current situation and could still lead to complications.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a narcotic medication. After administration, the nurse is left with an unused portion. What should the nurse do?

• A. Discard the medication in the trash
• B. Return the medication to the pharmacy
• C. Discard the medication with another nurse as a witness
• D. Store the medication for future use

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when left with an unused portion of a narcotic medication is to discard the medication with another nurse as a witness. This procedure ensures accountability and proper disposal of controlled substances. Choice A is incorrect as discarding in the trash can lead to potential misuse or environmental harm. Choice B is incorrect because returning controlled substances to the pharmacy is not the appropriate method for disposal. Choice D is incorrect as storing the medication for future use is not permitted with controlled substances.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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