Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer 1 unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to delay the transfusion?

• A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
• B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
• C. Temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F)
• D. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) suggests the possibility of an underlying infection or fever, which should be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion to prevent complications. Elevated temperature can indicate an immune response to incompatible blood components, increasing the risk of a transfusion reaction. The other vital signs and lab results provided are within acceptable ranges for administering packed RBCs, making choices A, B, and D less likely to cause a delay in the transfusion.

2. A client newly diagnosed with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about preventing complications. Which food should the nurse recommend?

• A. Fried chicken
• B. Whole milk
• C. Oatmeal
• D. Bacon

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oatmeal is an excellent recommendation for clients with osteoporosis due to its richness in fiber and nutrients, making it a heart-healthy and bone-friendly choice. Fried chicken (Choice A) is high in unhealthy fats and lacks the nutrients needed for bone health. Whole milk (Choice B) contains calcium but can be high in saturated fats, which may not be the best choice for individuals with osteoporosis. Bacon (Choice D) is high in saturated fats and sodium, which can have negative effects on bone health and overall well-being.

3. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

4. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Low potassium
• D. Low magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place several pillows behind the client’s head
• B. Place the client in a Sims' position
• C. Keep the client’s neck in a midline position
• D. Maintain flexion of the client’s hips at a 90° angle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the client’s neck in a midline position is essential when caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it helps promote optimal blood flow and reduces the risk of further increasing ICP. Placing pillows behind the client’s head (Choice A) may not be recommended as it could potentially increase ICP. Putting the client in a Sims' position (Choice B) and maintaining hip flexion at a 90° angle (Choice D) are not directly related to managing increased ICP and are not the priority interventions in this situation.

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