Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?

• A. The client's room number
• B. The client's telephone number
• C. The client's birth date
• D. The client's medical record number

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not an appropriate method for client identification in healthcare settings. It can lead to confusion and potential errors, especially in a busy environment like a postpartum unit. Room numbers are not unique to individual patients and can change frequently. Instead, healthcare providers should use more reliable and specific identifiers like the client's name, medical record number, or date of birth to ensure accurate identification and safe administration of medications. Choices B, C, and D are more appropriate secondary identifiers for client identification as they are more specific and less prone to errors than room numbers.

2. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Reduced menstrual flow
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.

3. A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
• B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
• C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
• D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead. It is most common in dark-skinned women and is caused by an increase in melanotropin during pregnancy. This condition typically appears after 16 weeks of gestation and gradually increases until delivery for 50 to 70% of women. The nurse should reassure the client that this is an expected occurrence, which usually fades after delivery. Therefore, explaining to the client that this is an expected occurrence is the appropriate action in this situation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because chloasma is a common skin change during pregnancy and does not require a referral to a dermatologist, an increase in vitamin D intake, or suspicion of an allergy to skin care products.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer vitamin K by IM injection to a newborn. The medication should be administered into which of the following muscles?

• A. Vastus lateralis
• B. Ventrogluteal
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Deltoid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vitamin K is typically administered in the vastus lateralis muscle of a newborn to prevent bleeding disorders. The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to its size and accessibility, allowing for easy and safe administration. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more commonly used in adults due to better muscle mass and less risk of injury to nearby structures. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults for IM injections, as it is a well-developed muscle suitable for injections in these populations.

5. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
• C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.

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