a client is prescribed insulin glargine which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A client is prescribed insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It should be given at the same time each day, usually at bedtime, to maintain a consistent blood sugar level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Injecting insulin glargine before a meal (Choice A) is not necessary as it is a long-acting insulin. Shaking the insulin vial (Choice B) is not recommended as it may cause bubbles to form, affecting the accuracy of the dose. Taking insulin glargine with short-acting insulin (Choice D) is not a typical practice as insulin glargine is used for basal insulin coverage.

2. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

4. A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client with chronic emphysema. Which result suggests the need for further treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg is elevated, indicating carbon dioxide retention, a common complication of emphysema that necessitates intervention. Elevated PaCO2 can lead to respiratory acidosis, reflecting inadequate ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges. A PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg is acceptable. An HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L falls within the normal range, suggesting adequate compensation. A pH level of 7.37 is also within the normal range, indicating the client's acid-base balance is maintained.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.

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