Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Magnesium levels
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Omeprazole can cause hypomagnesemia, a condition characterized by low magnesium levels in the blood. Monitoring magnesium levels is crucial to detect and address this potential adverse effect. Liver function (Choice A) is not typically affected by omeprazole. Blood glucose (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not directly impacted by omeprazole administration. Therefore, magnesium levels (Choice B) are the most appropriate parameter to monitor in a client prescribed omeprazole.

2. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

3. A school nurse is developing a teaching plan about testicular cancer for a group of adolescents. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Expect pain in the testicles during self-examination.
• B. The testicles should be uniform in size and shape when examined.
• C. Expect testicles to be uniform in consistency when performing a testicular self-examination.
• D. The testicles will shrink if cancer is present.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because during a testicular self-examination, it is crucial to note a uniform consistency of the testicles. Any lumps, changes in size, or inconsistencies should be reported to a healthcare provider promptly. Choice A is incorrect because pain is not typically expected during a testicular self-examination. Choice B is incorrect as uniform size and shape are not as relevant as uniform consistency. Choice D is incorrect; testicular cancer usually causes enlargement rather than shrinking of the testicles.

4. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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