ATI LPN
ATI Mental Health Practice A 2023
1. A healthcare provider is developing a care plan for a patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which intervention should be included to help the patient manage flashbacks?
- A. Encouraging the patient to confront the trauma directly.
- B. Teaching the patient grounding techniques.
- C. Encouraging the patient to use relaxation techniques.
- D. Helping the patient develop a safety plan.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching grounding techniques is an effective intervention for managing flashbacks in patients with PTSD. Grounding techniques help individuals focus on the present moment, which can reduce the intensity of flashbacks and promote a sense of safety and stability.
2. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.
3. In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of the people is termed:
- A. De jure
- B. De locus
- C. De facto
- D. De novo
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct term for the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of the people is 'de facto.' On the other hand, 'de jure' is the method based on the usual place of residence of the people.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of heart disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Weight
- C. Heart rhythm
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure, weight, and heart rhythm is crucial in clients with a history of heart disease as these parameters can indicate changes in the cardiovascular status. Changes in blood pressure can signify heart strain, weight fluctuations can be related to fluid retention or heart failure, and irregular heart rhythm can indicate arrhythmias or other cardiac issues. Monitoring all these parameters comprehensively allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' is the correct choice as it encompasses all the essential parameters for monitoring in clients with heart disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important changes in the client's condition.
5. During the initial assessment of the newborn, which of the following data would be considered normal?
- A. Chest circumference 31.5 cm, head circumference 33.5 cm
- B. Chest circumference 30 cm, head circumference 29 cm
- C. Chest circumference 38 cm, head circumference 31.5 cm
- D. Chest circumference 32.5 cm, head circumference 36 cm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. During the initial assessment of a newborn, the average head circumference at birth is 32 to 37 cm, while the average chest circumference ranges from 30 to 35 cm. Normally, the head's circumference is about 2 cm greater than the chest circumference at birth. Choice A provides measurements of chest circumference 31.5 cm and head circumference 33.5 cm, both falling within the normal range in terms of actual size and relative size. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the typical measurements seen in a healthy newborn. Choice B has both circumferences below the average range, choice C has the chest circumference above the average, and choice D has the head circumference notably higher than the chest circumference, which is not typical for a newborn.
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