Nursing Elites

1. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the patient to suppress their compulsive behaviors.
• B. Allow the patient to perform their rituals, then gradually limit the time spent on these rituals.
• C. Discourage the patient from discussing their obsessions.
• D. Avoid setting limits on the patient’s compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD, it is crucial to allow them to perform their rituals while gradually limiting the time spent on these rituals. This approach helps the patient feel supported while working towards reducing the compulsive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because suppressing compulsive behaviors can increase anxiety and distress. Choice C is inappropriate as discussing obsessions is part of therapy. Choice D is not recommended as setting limits on compulsive behaviors is essential for treatment.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient admitted for an overdose of sedatives and diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder?

• A. Conducting a suicide assessment
• B. Arranging for placement in a group home
• C. Providing a low-stimulation environment
• D. Establishing trust and rapport

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a suicide assessment is the priority intervention for a patient admitted for an overdose of sedatives and diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder. In this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess the risk of harm to the patient's life. It is crucial to determine if the overdose was intentional and if the patient has suicidal ideation or intent. Arranging for placement in a group home (choice B) may be necessary at a later stage depending on the patient's needs, but it is not the priority in this urgent situation. Providing a low-stimulation environment (choice C) and establishing trust and rapport (choice D) are important aspects of care but addressing the immediate risk of suicide takes precedence in this case.

3. Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents’ home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his ‘nice’ mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation for this response is:

• A. Temperament
• B. Genetic factors
• C. Resilience
• D. Paradoxical effects of neglect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Resilience is the ability to adapt positively in the face of adversity. Christopher's positive outlook and academic success despite experiencing neglect demonstrate his resilience in coping with challenging circumstances. Choice A, Temperament, refers to inherent traits and is not the most fitting explanation for Christopher's response. Genetic factors (Choice B) play a role in development but do not directly explain Christopher's ability to cope. The paradoxical effects of neglect (Choice D) typically refer to unexpected positive outcomes, which do not fully capture Christopher's situation.

4. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a ‘moody child’ with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert’s early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A person like Gilbert, with an early and slow onset of schizophrenia along with severe symptoms such as loss of daily functioning and obsessions, is likely to have a less positive outcome. Early and severe symptoms are often associated with a more chronic and debilitating course of schizophrenia, which can make treatment and recovery more challenging. Therefore, Gilbert's prognosis is considered to have a less positive outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Gilbert's condition, with its early onset and severe symptoms impacting daily life, suggests a more challenging prognosis that is less likely to be favorable with just medication or psychosocial interventions. Being in the relapse stage is not the primary concern here; the focus is on the overall outcome which is expected to be less positive given the early and severe nature of Gilbert's symptoms.

5. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted’s wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted’s mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:

• A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
• B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
• D. Lurasidone (Latuda)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lurasidone (Latuda) is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help manage symptoms of mania by stabilizing mood and reducing the intensity of manic episodes. Given Ted's history of bipolar I disorder and the need to address his manic symptoms, Lurasidone (Latuda) is a suitable recommendation by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to aid in managing Ted's condition effectively.

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