Nursing Elites

1. When developing a care plan for a patient with borderline personality disorder, which intervention should be included to address self-harm behaviors?

• A. Encouraging the patient to keep a journal of their thoughts and feelings.
• B. Setting clear and consistent boundaries with the patient.
• C. Providing the patient with coping skills to manage their emotions.
• D. Developing a safety plan with the patient.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Developing a safety plan with the patient is crucial when addressing self-harm behaviors in individuals with borderline personality disorder. This intervention helps outline steps to take during a crisis, identifies triggers, and provides strategies to prevent self-harm incidents. It involves collaboratively creating a plan between the patient and the healthcare team to ensure a structured and supportive approach to managing potentially dangerous situations.

2. In treating PTSD, which type of therapy is most commonly recommended?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
• B. Psychoanalytic therapy
• C. Humanistic therapy
• D. Gestalt therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most commonly recommended therapy for PTSD due to its effectiveness in helping patients identify and change negative thoughts and behaviors associated with trauma. This therapy focuses on providing practical coping strategies to manage symptoms and process traumatic experiences. Psychoanalytic therapy, humanistic therapy, and gestalt therapy are less commonly used for PTSD as they may not target the specific symptoms and cognitive distortions associated with this disorder.

3. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed fluvoxamine. What is a common side effect of this medication?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluvoxamine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used in the treatment of OCD. Patients should be advised to monitor and report any gastrointestinal disturbances, including nausea, to their healthcare provider.

4. What is the primary benefit of using exposure therapy for patients with phobias?

• A. To eliminate the phobia completely
• B. To gradually reduce the patient’s fear and anxiety
• C. To teach the patient relaxation techniques
• D. To provide immediate relief from anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary benefit of using exposure therapy for patients with phobias is to gradually reduce the patient's fear and anxiety. Exposure therapy involves exposing the individual to the feared object or situation in a controlled manner to help them confront their fears and learn that the perceived threat is not as harmful as initially believed. Over time, repeated exposure can lead to a decrease in anxiety and fear responses, helping the individual manage and overcome their phobia. Choice A is incorrect because exposure therapy aims to reduce fear and anxiety, not necessarily eliminate the phobia completely. Choice C is incorrect as although relaxation techniques might be part of the therapy, the primary goal is fear reduction. Choice D is incorrect as exposure therapy typically involves gradual exposure rather than providing immediate relief.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with bipolar disorder. Which finding suggests the patient is experiencing a manic episode?

• A. Decreased need for sleep
• B. Feelings of worthlessness
• C. Increased need for sleep
• D. Avoidance of social interactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a manic episode in patients with bipolar disorder, they often experience a decreased need for sleep. This symptom is characterized by feeling rested after only a few hours of sleep, or even feeling like they can go without sleep for extended periods without feeling tired. The increased energy levels and racing thoughts during a manic episode contribute to the decreased need for sleep.

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