a nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who had a vaginal delivery 4 hr ago and has a fourth degree perineal laceration which of the
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Nursing Elites

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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A client who had a vaginal delivery 4 hours ago has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Applying ice packs is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Ice packs help reduce swelling and promote comfort, aiding in the healing process. Choice A, encouraging ambulation, may not be suitable immediately after a fourth-degree laceration due to the need for rest and proper wound care. Choice C, restricting fluid intake, is not indicated and can lead to dehydration, which is not beneficial for wound healing. Choice D, administering stool softeners, may be necessary to prevent constipation and straining, but it is not the priority intervention at this time.

2. What is the healthcare provider's role in providing patient education about hypertension management?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage lifestyle modifications and medication adherence. Patient education in hypertension management should focus on encouraging lifestyle changes like a healthy diet, exercise, stress management, and adherence to prescribed medications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because advising patients to avoid physical activity, recommending a low-sodium diet, and increasing potassium intake, although related to hypertension management, do not encompass the comprehensive approach needed for effective patient education on this topic.

3. What is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions accumulate in the airway, it can lead to discomfort and irritability in the client. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation are usually later signs of inadequate airway clearance and oxygenation. Bradycardia may indicate severe hypoxia, while hypotension and decreased oxygen saturation are consequences of prolonged airway obstruction.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

5. What are the risk factors for stroke, and how can it be prevented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. High cholesterol and hypertension are significant risk factors for stroke. Regular exercise is an effective way to prevent stroke by managing these risk factors. Choice B is incorrect as while obesity and smoking are risk factors, preventing stroke through medication and weight loss is not the primary method. Choice C is incorrect as diabetes and alcohol consumption are risk factors, but preventing stroke through regular checkups is not as direct as managing cholesterol and hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as lack of exercise and a poor diet are indeed risk factors, but the prevention of stroke through lifestyle changes needs to specifically address high cholesterol and hypertension.

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