ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
- B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
- C. Bruising to the face.
- D. Absent gag reflex.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.
2. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?
- A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
- B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
- D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
3. What are the common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly?
- A. Dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor
- B. Increased heart rate and muscle cramps
- C. Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output
- D. Increased thirst and difficulty walking
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Dehydration in the elderly is often signaled by dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor due to reduced fluid intake. Choice A is the correct answer as these are common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly.\nIncorrect Rationales: Option B (Increased heart rate and muscle cramps) are more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or electrolyte imbalances rather than dehydration. Option C (Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output) are signs of other medical conditions such as infections or diabetes insipidus. Option D (Increased thirst and difficulty walking) can be seen in various situations but are not specific signs of dehydration in the elderly.
4. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment?
- A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
- B. Observation, Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation
- C. Auscultation, Palpation, Observation, Percussion
- D. Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment involves inspecting the chest for any abnormalities, palpating to assess tenderness and chest expansion, percussion to evaluate underlying structures, and auscultation to listen to lung sounds. Choice B is incorrect because observation is generally part of inspection, not a separate component. Choice C is incorrect as auscultation should come before percussion in a respiratory assessment. Choice D is incorrect because inspection should precede palpation in a structured assessment.
5. A client with COPD is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
- D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps maintain airway patency by preventing the collapse of small airways during exhalation, improving breathing efficiency. Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may be appropriate for some COPD patients but is not the priority intervention. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may help improve breathing but is not as specific as pursed-lip breathing for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing may be beneficial in other respiratory conditions, but it is not the most effective intervention for COPD.
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