a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

2. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion, it is crucial to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) continuously. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures and is considered a high-alert medication that requires close monitoring, especially of FHR and uterine contractions. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every hour, as in choice A, is important but not as crucial as continuous FHR monitoring. Restricting the total hourly intake to 200 mL, as in choice B, is not a relevant intervention for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Administering protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity, as in choice D, is incorrect as protamine sulfate is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Weight. Desmopressin can cause fluid retention, so monitoring the client's weight is crucial to detect signs of water intoxication or overhydration, which can occur with the medication. Monitoring fasting blood glucose (choice A) is not directly related to desmopressin use in diabetes insipidus. Carbohydrate intake (choice B) is important for diabetes management but is not specifically relevant to monitoring desmopressin therapy. Hematocrit (choice C) is not typically influenced by desmopressin use in diabetes insipidus.

4. What is the most prevalent dietary disaccharide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucrose is the correct answer as it is the most common disaccharide found in the diet, commonly known as table sugar. Lactose is a disaccharide found in dairy products, not as prevalent in the overall diet as sucrose. Fructose is a monosaccharide commonly found in fruits and honey, not a disaccharide. Galactose is a monosaccharide commonly found in dairy products and is not the most prevalent dietary disaccharide.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

Similar Questions

When working with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?
A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult client who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority?
A nurse is assessing a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as increasing the client's risk of falling?
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of iron supplement. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A patient is scheduled for cataract surgery but decides to cancel, stating 'I see just fine.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Access More Features

ATI Basic

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
    • 30 days access @ $69.99

ATI Basic

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
    • 90 days access @ $149.99