a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is concerned about weight gain during pregnancy. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During pregnancy, a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for a weight gain similar to someone without diabetes to ensure a healthy pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because weight gain should not be less; it should be adequate for pregnancy. Choice C is inaccurate as gaining some weight is essential for a healthy pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as gaining more weight than necessary can pose risks for both the client and the baby.

3. A client has a prescription for ciprofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with antacids containing aluminum or magnesium. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific limitation on caffeine intake associated with ciprofloxacin. Choice C is incorrect as ciprofloxacin does not typically cause urine to turn dark brown.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac workload decreases. Digoxin helps reduce cardiac workload in clients with heart failure, improving symptoms. This reduction in workload indicates that the medication is effective. Choice B, blood pressure increases, is incorrect because digoxin typically does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C, respiratory rate increases, is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of digoxin effectiveness. Choice D, temperature decreases, is also incorrect as digoxin does not typically affect body temperature.

5. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

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