Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and is receiving aspirin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. History of gastrointestinal bleeding
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of gastrointestinal bleeding. Aspirin therapy is contraindicated in clients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding because aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding. Option B, prothrombin time of 12 seconds, is within the normal range and does not indicate a concern related to aspirin therapy. Option C, platelet count of 180,000/mm³, is also within the normal range and does not suggest a need for reporting to the provider in the context of aspirin therapy. Option D, creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and is not directly related to aspirin therapy in this scenario.

3. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a suspected stroke?

• A. Monitor for changes in neurological status and administer thrombolytics
• B. Monitor for speech difficulties and administer oxygen
• C. Provide IV fluids and monitor blood pressure
• D. Administer pain relief and monitor for respiratory failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When managing a patient with a suspected stroke, it is crucial to monitor for changes in neurological status as this can provide important information about the patient's condition. Administering thrombolytics, if indicated, is a critical intervention in the acute phase of an ischemic stroke to help dissolve blood clots and restore blood flow to the brain. This choice is the correct answer because it addresses the immediate management needs of a patient with a suspected stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while monitoring for speech difficulties, administering oxygen, providing IV fluids, monitoring blood pressure, administering pain relief, and monitoring for respiratory failure are important aspects of patient care, they are not the primary interventions for managing a suspected stroke.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

5. Which is the correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness?

• A. Use the cane on the weaker side of the body
• B. Advance the cane and the strong leg together
• C. Maintain two points of support on the floor at all times
• D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct method for teaching a client to use a cane when they have left-leg weakness is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This approach ensures stability and helps the client maintain balance while using the cane. Choice A is incorrect because the cane should be used on the stronger side of the body to provide additional support. Choice B is incorrect as advancing the cane and the strong leg together may compromise stability. Choice D is incorrect as advancing the cane too far with each step can lead to imbalance and falls.

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