a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

2. A client has undergone a bronchoscopy, and a nurse is providing care post-procedure. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a bronchoscopy, the nurse's priority is to check for a gag reflex. This action helps assess the client's ability to protect their airway after sedation. Maintaining airway patency is crucial post-procedure. Monitoring oxygen levels is important but ensuring airway protection takes precedence. Encouraging the client to eat and administering IV fluids are essential aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypervigilance. Individuals with PTSD often experience hypervigilance, which involves being overly alert, easily startled, and constantly scanning their environment for potential threats. This heightened state of awareness is a common response to the trauma experienced. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; restlessness may occur but is not as characteristic as hypervigilance, and although avoidance of social situations can be a symptom of PTSD, hypervigilance is more directly associated with the disorder.

4. What are the complications of untreated DVT?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism and stroke. Untreated DVT can result in these serious complications, emphasizing the importance of timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent common complications associated with untreated deep vein thrombosis. Infection and kidney failure, hypertension and vision loss, as well as dehydration and electrolyte imbalance are not typically direct consequences of untreated DVT.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

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