ATI LPN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. During an intake assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating a patient diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which question would be most appropriate?
- A. Do you often experience periods of sadness?
- B. Do you have difficulty controlling your worrying?
- C. Do you find yourself repeating behaviors or thoughts?
- D. Do you experience sudden, unexpected panic attacks?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question when assessing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is to inquire about repeating behaviors or thoughts. This is a hallmark feature of OCD, where individuals often engage in repetitive actions or mental rituals to alleviate anxiety or distress. This behavior distinguishes OCD from other mental health conditions such as generalized anxiety disorder (choice B), major depressive disorder (choice A), and panic disorder (choice D). Therefore, recognizing repetitive behaviors or thoughts helps in identifying the presence of OCD and tailoring appropriate interventions for the patient.
2. What is an important aspect of patient education regarding buspirone when prescribed for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
- A. Buspirone is an as-needed medication for anxiety.
- B. Buspirone has a high risk of addiction and dependence.
- C. Buspirone may not become effective until 2-4 weeks after starting the medication.
- D. Buspirone should be taken with food to increase absorption.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When educating a patient about buspirone for generalized anxiety disorder, it is crucial to highlight that buspirone may take 2-4 weeks to become effective. Patients need to be aware of this delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and continue the medication as prescribed. This information helps patients understand that they may not experience immediate relief and should not discontinue the medication prematurely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because buspirone is typically taken regularly, not as-needed, it has a lower risk of addiction compared to other anxiety medications, and it does not need to be taken with food for increased absorption.
3. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which symptom is this medication most likely intended to address?
- A. Panic attacks
- B. Tremors and palpitations
- C. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
- D. Depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers are commonly used to alleviate physical symptoms associated with anxiety disorders, such as tremors and palpitations. These medications help manage the autonomic symptoms of anxiety, like increased heart rate and trembling, which are often prominent in social anxiety disorder. Beta-blockers do not primarily target cognitive symptoms like recurrent, intrusive thoughts (choice C), panic attacks (choice A), or depression (choice D) in social anxiety disorder.
4. When the caregiver of a child asks the nurse for reassurance about their child’s condition, which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “I think your child is getting better. What have you noticed?”
- B. “I’m sure everything will be okay. It just takes time to heal.”
- C. “I’m not sure what’s wrong. Have you asked the doctor about your concerns?”
- D. “I understand you’re concerned. Let’s discuss what concerns you specifically.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When providing reassurance to a caregiver about their child’s condition, it's essential to acknowledge their concern and address it specifically. Response D demonstrates empathy and a willingness to discuss the caregiver's specific concerns, which can help in providing accurate information and support to them. Choices A and B provide general reassurance without addressing the caregiver's specific concerns, which may not alleviate their worries effectively. Choice C deflects the question back to the caregiver and suggests consulting the doctor without directly engaging with the caregiver's worries, which may not offer the needed support and reassurance.
5. What principle about patient communication should guide a nurse's fear of 'saying the wrong thing' to a patient?
- A. Patients tend to appreciate a well-meaning person who conveys genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their situation.
- B. Patients are more interested in talking to you than listening to what you have to say, so they are not likely to be offended.
- C. Considering the patient's history, there is little chance that the comment will do any actual harm.
- D. Most people with a mental illness have, by necessity, developed a high tolerance for forgiveness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Effective patient communication is guided by the principle that patients value genuine acceptance, respect, and concern from their caregivers. This approach helps to build trust and fosters effective communication, enhancing the nurse-patient relationship. Choice B is incorrect because patients value both talking and listening in effective communication. Choice C is incorrect because a nurse should always consider the impact of their words on the patient, regardless of the patient's history. Choice D is incorrect as it generalizes about people with mental illness and forgiveness, which is not directly relevant to patient communication.
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