Nursing Elites

1. During an initial assessment of a client, a nurse notices a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Complete an incident report and place it in the client's medical record.
• B. Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record.
• C. Contact the charge nurse to see if the prescription was changed.
• D. Submit a written warning for the nurse involved in the incident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when noticing a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report is to compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record. This step is crucial to ensure the accuracy of the prescribed treatment and to prevent any potential harm to the client. Option A is incorrect because completing an incident report should only be done after verifying the discrepancy. Option C is incorrect as contacting the charge nurse should come after confirming the details. Option D is incorrect as submitting a written warning is not appropriate without verifying the information first.

2. A nurse is planning care for a preschool-age child who is in the acute phase of Kawasaki disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer scheduled doses of acetaminophen every 6 hr.
• B. Monitor the child's cardiac status.
• C. Administer antibiotics via intermittent IV bolus for 24 hr.
• D. Provide stimulation with children of the same age in the playroom.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac status is crucial during the acute phase of Kawasaki disease because of the potential for coronary artery complications. Acetaminophen may be used for fever management but is not the priority intervention. Antibiotics are not indicated as Kawasaki disease is not caused by a bacterial infection. Providing stimulation in the playroom is important for the child's emotional well-being but does not address the immediate physiological concern of cardiac monitoring.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

4. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?

• A. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
• B. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
• C. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
• D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This is important to promote natural healing and prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily can actually delay healing and increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as the cord stump typically falls off within 1 to 3 weeks, not in 5 days. Choice C is incorrect because a cord stump turning black is a normal part of the healing process and does not necessarily indicate a problem requiring immediate provider contact.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for potential deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Assess for unilateral leg swelling
• B. Encourage early mobilization
• C. Check for calf tenderness
• D. Observe for redness and warmth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess a patient for potential deep vein thrombosis (DVT), healthcare professionals should look for unilateral leg swelling. This is a classic sign of DVT. While encouraging early mobilization is generally beneficial for preventing DVT, it is not a method of assessment. Checking for calf tenderness is also relevant but not as specific as unilateral leg swelling. Observing for redness and warmth can be signs of inflammation but are not as specific to DVT as unilateral leg swelling.

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