Nursing Elites

1. During an initial assessment of a client, a nurse notices a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Complete an incident report and place it in the client's medical record.
• B. Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record.
• C. Contact the charge nurse to see if the prescription was changed.
• D. Submit a written warning for the nurse involved in the incident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when noticing a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report is to compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record. This step is crucial to ensure the accuracy of the prescribed treatment and to prevent any potential harm to the client. Option A is incorrect because completing an incident report should only be done after verifying the discrepancy. Option C is incorrect as contacting the charge nurse should come after confirming the details. Option D is incorrect as submitting a written warning is not appropriate without verifying the information first.

2. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration
• D. Monitor the site for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and continuing the IV can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Increasing the IV flow rate is not indicated and may worsen the inflammation. Monitoring for signs of infection is important, but the priority is to remove the source of inflammation by discontinuing the IV.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who underwent surgery for a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Clear lung sounds
• B. Fever
• C. Pain in the operative leg
• D. Capillary refill of 2 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Fever in a postoperative client can indicate an infection, which is a serious complication and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Clear lung sounds (Choice A) are a positive finding indicating normal respiratory function. Pain in the operative leg (Choice C) is expected postoperatively and should be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Capillary refill of 2 seconds (Choice D) is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and is not a concerning finding postoperatively.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
• B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
• C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
• D. Place the patient in a side-lying position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

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