ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1. A nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction. The client is concerned that providing self-care will be difficult due to extreme fatigue. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement to promote the client's independence?
- A. Request an occupational therapy consult to determine the need for assistive devices
- B. Assign assistive personnel to perform self-care tasks for the client
- C. Instruct the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks
- D. Ask the client if a family member is available to assist with his care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Instructing the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks is the most appropriate strategy to promote independence following an acute myocardial infarction. This approach allows the client to regain confidence and control over their self-care activities without feeling overwhelmed. Requesting an occupational therapy consult (Choice A) may be beneficial but is not the immediate solution to promote independence. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice B) to perform tasks for the client does not encourage independence. Asking if a family member is available for assistance (Choice D) does not directly promote the client's independence.
2. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?
- A. The client's urine test is positive for glucose and acetone
- B. The client has 1+ pedal edema in both feet at the end of the day
- C. The client complains of an increase in vaginal discharge
- D. The client says she feels pressure against her diaphragm when the baby moves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.
3. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment, and how do you recognize signs of respiratory distress?
- A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
- B. Palpation, Inspection, Observation, Auscultation
- C. Percussion, Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation
- D. Inspection, Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment should start with inspection (observing the breathing pattern), followed by palpation (feeling for abnormalities like crepitus), percussion (evaluating for dullness or hyperresonance), and auscultation (listening to lung sounds). This systematic approach helps to identify signs of respiratory distress, such as abnormal breath sounds, increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the standard order and sequence of a focused respiratory assessment.
4. What is the study of conduct and character?
- A. Ethics
- B. Justice
- C. Morals
- D. Non-maleficence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ethics is the correct answer because it specifically deals with the study of conduct and character. Ethics is a branch of philosophy that involves systematizing, defending, and recommending concepts of right and wrong conduct. While justice and morals are related to ethical considerations, they do not directly represent the study of conduct and character. Non-maleficence is a principle in medical ethics related to avoiding harm.
5. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?
- A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
- B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
- C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
- D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.
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