a nurse is working in an acute care mental health facility and is assessing a client who has schizophrenia which of the following findings should the
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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A nurse is working in an acute care mental health facility and is assessing a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disorganized speech. Disorganized speech is a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by impaired thought processes that lead to incoherent, disjointed communication. All-or-nothing thinking (Choice A) is more commonly associated with cognitive distortions seen in conditions like anxiety disorders. Euphoric mood (Choice B) is not a typical finding in schizophrenia, as individuals with this disorder often display a flat or blunted affect. Hypochondriasis (Choice D) involves a preoccupation with having a serious illness and is not a primary symptom of schizophrenia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with an NG tube who reports nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What is the nurse's next step?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This action helps relieve blockages that may be causing the symptoms of nausea and decreased gastric secretions. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) may mask the underlying issue without addressing the possible blockage. Increasing the suction setting (Choice C) is not indicated without first addressing the potential blockage. Replacing the NG tube (Choice D) is also premature before attempting to clear any obstructions.

3. What are the key factors in assessing a patient's fall risk?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Assessing the patient's age and mobility are key factors in determining fall risk. Age can affect balance and reaction time, while mobility influences the patient's stability. Choices B, C, and D are important considerations in assessing a patient's fall risk as well, but age and mobility play a more direct role in determining the patient's susceptibility to falls.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

5. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

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