Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a healthcare provider observes small pearly white nodules on the roof of a newborn's mouth. This finding is a characteristic of which of the following conditions?

• A. Mongolian spots
• B. Milia spots
• C. Erythema toxicum
• D. Epstein's pearls

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Epstein's pearls are small pearly white nodules commonly observed on the roof of a newborn's mouth. They are considered a normal finding and typically disappear without treatment. It is essential for healthcare providers to recognize these benign nodules to differentiate them from other conditions and provide appropriate education to parents. The other choices are incorrect: A) Mongolian spots are blue or purple birthmarks commonly found on the skin; B) Milia spots are tiny white bumps on a newborn's nose and face; C) Erythema toxicum presents as a rash of flat red splotches with small bumps that can appear on a baby's skin.

2. After an amniotomy, what is the priority nursing action?

• A. Observe color and consistency of fluid
• B. Assess the fetal heart rate pattern
• C. Assess the client's temperature
• D. Evaluate the client for the presence of chills and increased uterine tenderness using palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After an amniotomy, the priority nursing action is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of fetal distress, as changes in the fetal heart rate could indicate potential complications related to the procedure. Observing the color and consistency of the fluid (Choice A) is important but not the priority over assessing fetal well-being. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice C) and evaluating the client for chills and increased uterine tenderness (Choice D) are not immediate priorities following an amniotomy.

3. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?

• A. Missed abortion
• B. Ectopic pregnancy
• C. Severe preeclampsia
• D. Hydatidiform mole

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy should be suspected in clients with abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding, especially if they have an intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the client's symptoms are classic for ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. Missed abortion (choice A) refers to a nonviable embryo or fetus in the uterus, which is not consistent with the client's presentation. Severe preeclampsia (choice C) is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. Hydatidiform mole (choice D) presents with vaginal bleeding but typically lacks abdominal pain and is not related to the presence of an IUD.

4. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
• C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
• D. Administer methylergonovine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.

5. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

• A. Shortly after giving birth
• B. In the third trimester
• C. Immediately
• D. During the next attempt to get pregnant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

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