ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn
1. During an assessment, a healthcare provider observes small pearly white nodules on the roof of a newborn's mouth. This finding is a characteristic of which of the following conditions?
- A. Mongolian spots
- B. Milia spots
- C. Erythema toxicum
- D. Epstein's pearls
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Epstein's pearls are small pearly white nodules commonly observed on the roof of a newborn's mouth. They are considered a normal finding and typically disappear without treatment. It is essential for healthcare providers to recognize these benign nodules to differentiate them from other conditions and provide appropriate education to parents. The other choices are incorrect: A) Mongolian spots are blue or purple birthmarks commonly found on the skin; B) Milia spots are tiny white bumps on a newborn's nose and face; C) Erythema toxicum presents as a rash of flat red splotches with small bumps that can appear on a baby's skin.
2. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Betamethasone
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Methylergonovine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.
3. A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
- B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- D. Slow the client's breathing rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The described pattern suggests late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion helps reduce uterine contractions, improving placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This intervention is essential to prevent fetal compromise and potential harm during labor. Choice A is incorrect because decreasing the rate of the maintenance IV solution does not directly address the cause of the late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the rate of IV oxytocin can worsen uterine contractions, exacerbating the fetal distress. Choice D is incorrect because slowing the client's breathing rate is not indicated in the management of late decelerations during labor.
4. A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam.
- B. I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child.
- C. I should plan on regaining fertility 5 months after the IUD is removed.
- D. I will check to ensure the strings of the IUD are still present after my periods.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Checking for the presence of IUD strings after each period is crucial to ensure the IUD is correctly positioned and functioning. This practice helps in confirming the effectiveness of the contraceptive method and timely detection of any displacement or issues with the IUD. Choice A is incorrect as IUDs have varying durations of effectiveness, but they do not need to be replaced annually as a routine. Choice B is incorrect as women can get an IUD even if they haven't had a child. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns shortly after IUD removal, not necessarily after a specific timeframe like 5 months.
5. During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?
- A. Vertex
- B. Shoulder
- C. Breech
- D. Mentum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Breech." The RSA position indicates that the fetus is in a breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first, which can impact the mode of delivery and require close monitoring during labor and birth. Choice A (Vertex) refers to the head-first presentation, which is considered the normal and most common presentation for birth. Choice B (Shoulder) does not represent a specific fetal presentation. Choice D (Mentum) refers to the chin presentation, which is also not relevant in this scenario.
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