ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
- A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
- B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
- C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
- D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.
2. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?
- A. Peanut butter
- B. Potatoes
- C. Apple juice
- D. Broccoli
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.
3. A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Cholecystitis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Migraine headaches
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cholecystitis is a correct answer. A history of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis, is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. Hypertension is a correct answer. Hypertension is also a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications. Migraine headaches are a correct answer. A history of migraine headaches is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, especially for those with aura. Selecting 'All of the above' is correct as all the mentioned conditions (cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches) are contraindications for oral contraceptives. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are incorrect choices as they are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives.
4. When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?
- A. Consume three to four servings of dairy each day.
- B. Increase daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories.
- C. Limit daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram.
- D. Increase protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement to include when developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy is to consume three to four servings of dairy each day. Adequate calcium intake is crucial for bone development during pregnancy and helps prevent complications related to inadequate calcium intake. Increasing daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories (Choice B) is not necessary during the third trimester; excessive caloric intake can lead to unnecessary weight gain. Limiting daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram (Choice C) is not suitable during pregnancy, as some sodium intake is necessary for maintaining fluid balance. Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day (Choice D) is important during pregnancy, but the emphasis in this case should be on calcium from dairy sources for bone development.
5. A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?
- A. It would be best if you gained about 11 to 20 pounds.
- B. The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds.
- C. A gain of about 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for you.
- D. A gain of about 1 pound per week is the best pattern for you.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a client with a BMI of 26.5 (overweight), the recommended weight gain during pregnancy is 15 to 25 pounds. This range helps promote a healthy pregnancy outcome and reduces the risk of complications associated with excessive weight gain. Option A suggests a lower weight gain range, which may not be adequate for a client with a BMI of 26.5. Option C indicates a higher weight gain range, which could lead to complications for an overweight individual. Option D provides a general guideline for weight gain without considering the client's BMI, which is not personalized advice. Therefore, the most appropriate response is option B, offering a suitable weight gain recommendation for the client's BMI to support a healthy pregnancy journey.
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