Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

2. During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?

• A. Vomiting
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to the vasodilation effect of the medication. Epidural anesthesia can lead to vasodilation, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This hypotension may result in decreased perfusion to vital organs and compromise maternal and fetal well-being. Tachycardia is less likely as a complication of epidural anesthesia since it tends to have a vasodilatory effect. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with other forms of anesthesia, such as general anesthesia, rather than epidural anesthesia. Vomiting is not typically a direct complication of epidural anesthesia and is more commonly seen with other factors such as pain or medications given during labor.

3. A client who is postpartum has a slightly boggy and displaced fundus to the right. Which of the following actions should the nurse take based on these findings?

• A. Encourage the client to perform Kegel exercises.
• B. Encourage the client to move to the left lateral position.
• C. Ask the client to rate her pain.
• D. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A displaced and boggy fundus in a postpartum client typically indicates a full bladder, which can impede uterine contractions and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void helps ensure the bladder is empty, aiding the fundus to contract and reducing the risk of complications. Encouraging Kegel exercises, changing positions, or assessing pain would not directly address the issue of the boggy fundus caused by a full bladder.

4. A newborn is small for gestational age (SGA). Which of the following findings is associated with this condition?

• A. Moist skin
• B. Protruding abdomen
• C. Gray umbilical cord
• D. Wide skull sutures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Wide skull sutures are a common finding in newborns who are small for gestational age (SGA) due to reduced intrauterine growth. This occurs because the skull bones do not grow at the same rate as the brain, leading to wider sutures. Moist skin, a protruding abdomen, and a gray umbilical cord are not typically associated with being small for gestational age.

5. A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
• B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
• C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
• D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is essential for a client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus to continue taking insulin as prescribed even if they experience nausea and vomiting. This is crucial to prevent fluctuations in blood glucose levels that could lead to serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because the fasting blood glucose target for pregnant women with diabetes is usually lower. Choice B is incorrect as engaging in exercise when blood glucose is high is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding exercise is not the appropriate approach when blood glucose levels are elevated.

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