Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

2. When caring for clients in a prenatal clinic, a nurse should report which client's weight gain to the provider?

• A. 1.8 kg (4 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
• B. 3.6 kg (8 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
• C. 6.8 kg (15 lb) weight gain in the second trimester
• D. 11.3 kg (25 lb) weight gain in the third trimester

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight gain of 3.6 kg (8 lb) in the first trimester is excessive and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Excessive weight gain in the first trimester can be a sign of potential issues that need monitoring and intervention to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, C, and D represent weight gains that are within normal ranges for the respective trimesters and do not raise immediate concerns for reporting to the provider.

3. A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation
• B. A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation
• C. A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation
• D. A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tocolytic therapy is used to suppress premature labor. It is appropriate to administer it to a client experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation to help delay delivery and improve neonatal outcomes. Administering tocolytic therapy to a client experiencing fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy is not indicated and may not be safe or effective in these situations. Fetal death at 32 weeks indicates a non-viable pregnancy, Braxton-Hicks contractions are normal and not indicative of preterm labor, and post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks does not require tocolytic therapy.

4. During Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor, which technique should be used by the nurse to identify the fetal lie?

• A. Apply palms of both hands to sides of the uterus
• B. Palpate the fundus of the uterus
• C. Grasp the lower uterine segment between thumb and fingers
• D. Stand facing the client's feet with fingertips outlining cephalic prominence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Palpating the fundus of the uterus during Leopold maneuvers is crucial to identify the fetal lie. This technique allows the nurse to determine the position of the baby's back and locate the fetal heart sounds, aiding in assessing the fetal lie. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to identifying the fetal lie during Leopold maneuvers. Applying palms to the sides of the uterus or grasping the lower uterine segment do not provide the necessary information about the fetal lie. Standing facing the client's feet and outlining cephalic prominence is more related to assessing the fetal presentation, not the fetal lie.

5. A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Check the client's capillary refill.
• B. Massage the client's fundus.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for the client.
• D. Prepare the client for a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage, the priority is to address the risk of hypovolemic shock, which can lead to vital organ perfusion compromise and potentially death. Massaging the client's fundus helps to control bleeding by promoting uterine contraction and reducing blood loss, making it the nurse's priority intervention in this situation. Checking capillary refill may be important in assessing perfusion status but is not the priority over controlling the hemorrhage. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Although preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary, addressing the primary cause of bleeding by massaging the fundus takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.

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