Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Fever
• B. Ataxia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.

2. During the admission of a client with a latex allergy, which of the following supplies has the potential to contain latex?

• A. Urinary catheters
• B. Indwelling catheters
• C. Sterile gloves
• D. Sterile gowns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary catheters. Urinary catheters often contain latex, which can trigger an allergic reaction in clients with latex allergy. Indwelling catheters (choice B), sterile gloves (choice C), and sterile gowns (choice D) can be latex-free alternatives. However, urinary catheters are more commonly made with latex, making them a higher risk for clients with latex allergies.

3. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with suspected infection?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
• B. Check for fever and monitor white blood cell count
• C. Assess for pain and check for localized swelling
• D. Monitor for chills and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When managing a patient with suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate to assess the severity of the infection. Administering antibiotics is also essential to treat the infection. Choice B is incorrect because while checking for fever and monitoring white blood cell count are important, they alone are not sufficient to manage the patient. Choice C focuses on assessing pain and localized swelling, which are important but not primary in managing suspected infection. Choice D mentions monitoring for chills and administering fluids, which are not the primary interventions for managing a suspected infection.

4. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Apply a cold compress over the IV site
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

5. What are the early signs and symptoms of sepsis?

• A. Increased heart rate and fever
• B. Low blood pressure and confusion
• C. Rapid breathing and sweating
• D. Abdominal pain and cyanosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. In sepsis, an increased heart rate and fever are common early signs of systemic infection. While choices B, C, and D can be present in later stages of sepsis, they are not typically the initial signs. Low blood pressure and confusion may occur in severe sepsis or septic shock. Rapid breathing and sweating can be seen as sepsis progresses. Abdominal pain and cyanosis may develop as the condition advances but are not usually the earliest signs.

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