Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Fever
• B. Ataxia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

3. Which nursing action is a priority when managing a client with a wound infection?

• A. Change the wound dressing every 24 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before administering antibiotics
• C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol-based solutions
• D. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before administering antibiotics is crucial when managing a client with a wound infection. This step helps identify the specific pathogens causing the infection, allowing for the prescription of the most effective antibiotics. Changing the wound dressing every 24 hours (Choice A) is important for wound care but not the priority when an infection is present. Cleansing the wound with alcohol-based solutions (Choice C) can be too harsh and may delay wound healing. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing (Choice D) is not recommended for infected wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during dressing changes.

4. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial when a client is taking digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypernatremia, hypertension, and tachycardia are not directly associated with digoxin use.

5. What is the role of the nurse in postoperative care for a patient with a hip replacement?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection and administer pain relief
• B. Ensure the patient follows a low-calcium diet
• C. Ensure the patient uses crutches to avoid pressure on the hip
• D. Monitor for signs of deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of infection and administer pain relief. In postoperative care for a patient with a hip replacement, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of infection, such as increased pain, redness, swelling, or drainage from the surgical site. Administering pain relief is also important to ensure the patient's comfort and aid in their recovery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the immediate postoperative care needs of a patient with a hip replacement. Ensuring a low-calcium diet, using crutches, or monitoring for deep vein thrombosis are not primary responsibilities in the immediate postoperative period for this type of surgery.

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