ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. What is the most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions?
- A. Fluid restrictions are not needed for all clients with chronic kidney disease.
- B. You may need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
- C. Fluid restrictions are based on your lab results and daily weights.
- D. Restricting fluids is only necessary during dialysis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions is to inform them that limiting fluid intake may be necessary to prevent fluid overload. This is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect as fluid restrictions are commonly advised for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice C is partially correct as fluid restrictions are indeed based on lab results and daily weights, but the primary goal is to prevent fluid overload. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restrictions are not limited to just during dialysis; they are often recommended throughout the day to manage the condition.
2. A client is receiving IV fluids and has developed phlebitis. What is the next step the nurse should take?
- A. Monitor the site for further swelling
- B. Remove the catheter and place it in another site
- C. Reduce the flow rate of IV fluids
- D. Switch to oral hydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct next step when a client develops phlebitis while receiving IV fluids is to remove the catheter and place it in another site. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, and leaving the catheter in the same site can lead to further complications. Monitoring the site for further swelling, as in choice A, is not enough as the source of inflammation needs to be removed. Choice C, reducing the flow rate, may not address the underlying issue causing phlebitis. Switching to oral hydration, as in choice D, is not necessary for addressing phlebitis related to IV fluid administration.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
- B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
- C. Bruising to the face.
- D. Absent gag reflex.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.
4. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
- B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
- C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
- D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.
5. A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. The nurse should assist the client into which of the following positions?
- A. Supine with head elevated
- B. Lateral recumbent
- C. Prone with arms at sides
- D. Sitting with back rounded
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct position for a lumbar puncture is the lateral recumbent position. This position allows the spine to curve naturally, widening the spaces between the vertebrae, making it easier and safer to perform the procedure. Supine with head elevated (Choice A) would not provide the proper positioning for a lumbar puncture as it does not allow for proper access to the lumbar area. Prone with arms at sides (Choice C) would not be suitable as it would not facilitate the procedure. Sitting with back rounded (Choice D) is also incorrect as it does not allow for the proper alignment of the spine needed for a lumbar puncture.
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