Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions?

• A. Fluid restrictions are not needed for all clients with chronic kidney disease.
• B. You may need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• C. Fluid restrictions are based on your lab results and daily weights.
• D. Restricting fluids is only necessary during dialysis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions is to inform them that limiting fluid intake may be necessary to prevent fluid overload. This is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect as fluid restrictions are commonly advised for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice C is partially correct as fluid restrictions are indeed based on lab results and daily weights, but the primary goal is to prevent fluid overload. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restrictions are not limited to just during dialysis; they are often recommended throughout the day to manage the condition.

2. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with pneumonia?

• A. Administer antibiotics and provide oxygen therapy
• B. Provide bronchodilators and encourage deep breathing
• C. Administer fluids and encourage bed rest
• D. Monitor for chest pain and provide pain relief

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Administering antibiotics and providing oxygen therapy are essential in managing pneumonia. Antibiotics help treat the infection caused by bacteria, while oxygen therapy improves lung function. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators may not be the primary treatment for pneumonia. Choice C is not the priority in pneumonia management, although fluids and rest are important for recovery. Choice D is also not a primary intervention in pneumonia management.

4. A nurse manager of a med surge unit is assigning care responsibilities for the oncoming shift. A client is waiting transfer back to the unit from the PACU following thoracic surgery. To which staff member should the nurse assign the client?

• A. Charge nurse
• B. RN
• C. LVN
• D. AP

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: RN. An RN is required for managing post-surgical care in the immediate postoperative period, especially for a client following thoracic surgery. The RN is equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to assess the client's condition, provide complex care, and recognize and respond to any complications that may arise. Assigning the client to the Charge nurse (A) may not be appropriate as the Charge nurse focuses more on administrative and managerial tasks rather than direct patient care. LVNs (C) and APs (D) may have limitations in their scope of practice when it comes to managing post-surgical care following thoracic surgery, which requires a higher level of assessment and intervention that an RN can provide.

5. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Apply a cold compress over the IV site
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

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