Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

2. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?

• A. When the client is hypotensive
• B. When the client is irritable
• C. When the client is flushed
• D. When the client is bradycardic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a male client who is scheduled for a left inguinal herniorrhaphy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. High blood pressure
• B. Decreased bowel sounds
• C. Constipation
• D. Difficulty urinating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Difficulty urinating.' This finding is crucial to report promptly as it can indicate a complication, such as urinary retention or injury to the urinary tract, which are significant concerns post-hernia surgery. High blood pressure (Choice A) may require monitoring but is not as urgent as difficulty urinating. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice B) and constipation (Choice C) are common after surgery and may resolve with appropriate interventions but are not as critical as addressing difficulty urinating.

4. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer potassium-wasting diuretics
• B. Encourage a low-potassium diet
• C. Administer potassium supplements
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.

5. A nurse is teaching dietary guidelines to a client who has celiac disease. Which of the following food choices is appropriate for the client?

• A. White flour tortillas.
• B. Potato pancakes.
• C. Wheat crackers.
• D. Canned barley soup.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, potato pancakes. Individuals with celiac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods. Potato pancakes are gluten-free, making them a suitable choice for someone with celiac disease. Choice A, white flour tortillas, contains gluten from wheat flour, making it unsuitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice C, wheat crackers, also contain gluten and should be avoided. Choice D, canned barley soup, contains barley which is a gluten-containing grain and is not appropriate for someone with celiac disease.

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