Nursing Elites

1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?

• A. A sandwich and milkshake
• B. Rice with black beans
• C. Cottage cheese and tuna lettuce
• D. Three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause drowsiness
• B. It should be taken with food
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• D. It is safe during pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to increase the risk of bleeding, so clients should be monitored for this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is not typically associated with causing drowsiness. Choice B is not a specific consideration for aspirin use; it is not necessary to take it with food. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin is not considered safe during pregnancy and should be avoided, especially in the third trimester, as it may cause complications for the mother and the baby.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medication metformin with a client who has diabetes. Which of the following side effects should the nurse discuss?

• A. Gastrointestinal upset
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Weight loss
• D. Frequent urination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gastrointestinal upset. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal upset, especially when first starting therapy. It is important to take it with food to reduce these effects. Increased appetite (choice B) and weight loss (choice C) are not common side effects of metformin but may occur due to improved blood sugar control. Frequent urination (choice D) is a symptom of uncontrolled diabetes and not a side effect of metformin.

5. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium levels
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Blood glucose levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

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