ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?
- A. A sandwich and milkshake
- B. Rice with black beans
- C. Cottage cheese and tuna lettuce
- D. Three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.
2. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?
- A. Monitor for signs of illness.
- B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
- C. Administer medication to students with chronic conditions.
- D. Monitor immunization compliance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Erythrocyte count
- B. Neutrophil count
- C. Lymphocyte count
- D. Thrombocyte count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophil production in clients undergoing chemotherapy or with bone marrow suppression. A rise in neutrophil count indicates the medication is working effectively to boost immune response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as filgrastim primarily targets neutrophils, not erythrocytes, lymphocytes, or thrombocytes.
4. A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of clozapine. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for agranulocytosis
- B. It is a first-line treatment
- C. It can cause significant weight loss
- D. It has no risk for metabolic syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A nurse should include monitoring for agranulocytosis when educating a patient about clozapine. Clozapine is known to cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening decrease in white blood cells. This adverse effect requires close monitoring to detect it early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clozapine is not a first-line treatment for most conditions, it is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, and it is known to have a risk for metabolic syndrome.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who reports burning around the peripheral IV site. Which finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of infiltration?
- A. Redness at the site
- B. Warmth around the site
- C. Edema
- D. Pain at the site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Edema at the IV site indicates that IV solution has leaked into the extravascular tissue, which is a sign of infiltration. Redness, warmth, and pain at the site are more indicative of phlebitis, not infiltration. Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, and pain along the vein where the IV is placed, while infiltration involves the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue.
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