Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which food selection indicates an understanding of dietary teaching?

• A. Cottage cheese
• B. Tuna salad
• C. Rice with black beans
• D. Three-egg omelet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit animal proteins due to their high ammonia content, which can exacerbate symptoms. Plant-based proteins like beans are preferred as they help reduce ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and D contain animal proteins that are not ideal for clients with hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A client wearing an arm cast reports numb fingers. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the arm in a dependent position
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Check the client's circulation
• D. Apply a warm compress to the fingers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's circulation. Numbness in the fingers may indicate compromised circulation or nerve damage. By assessing the circulation first, the nurse can ensure that the cast is not too tight, which could be cutting off blood flow. Option A is incorrect because placing the arm in a dependent position may worsen circulation issues. Option B is incorrect as administering pain medication does not address the underlying cause of numbness. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress could mask circulation issues and is not the priority in this situation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take sucralfate with an antacid.
• B. Take sucralfate 1 hour before meals.
• C. Take sucralfate with food.
• D. Take sucralfate at bedtime only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

5. What can cause a low pulse oximetry reading?

• A. Hyperthermia
• B. Increased hemoglobin level
• C. Inadequate peripheral circulation
• D. Low altitudes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inadequate peripheral circulation can cause a low pulse oximetry reading by limiting blood flow to the area being measured, leading to inaccurate oxygen saturation readings. Hyperthermia (choice A) is an elevated body temperature and does not directly affect pulse oximetry readings. An increased hemoglobin level (choice B) would actually lead to higher oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in normal or increased pulse oximetry readings. Low altitudes (choice D) typically do not cause low pulse oximetry readings unless there are other underlying conditions affecting oxygen levels.

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