ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. When caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant, which action should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Remove dirty linens after double bagging them
- B. Wear a dosimeter film badge while in the client’s room
- C. Limit visitors to 1 hour per day
- D. Ensure family members remain at least 3 feet from the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to wear a dosimeter film badge while in the client's room. This is crucial for monitoring radiation exposure levels when caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Option A is incorrect as removing dirty linens after double bagging them is not directly related to radiation safety. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific guideline to limit visitors to 1 hour per day for clients with sealed radiation implants. Option D is incorrect as the distance of family members from the client is not a primary safety measure when dealing with sealed radiation implants.
2. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypertension
- C. Pruritus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath
- B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
- C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
- D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct information that the nurse should include in the teaching about a CPAP device is that it delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle. This consistent positive airway pressure helps keep the airway open during both inspiration and expiration. Choice A is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver pressure only at the beginning of each breath. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP provides a constant level of pressure without continuous adjustments throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not provide positive pressure at the end of each breath; instead, it maintains a continuous positive pressure.
4. A client is receiving enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Expel any air bubbles from the prefilled syringe
- B. Massage the injection site to aid in absorption of the medication
- C. Inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall
- D. Administer an NSAID for injection site discomfort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin into the lateral abdominal wall for subcutaneous absorption. This site is commonly used for administering this type of medication. Expelling air bubbles from the syringe is not necessary and may result in a reduced dose being administered. Massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can lead to bruising or irritation. Administering an NSAID for injection site discomfort is not indicated as discomfort at the injection site is usually minimal and self-limiting.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a patient and realizes they administered the wrong medication. What action should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Report the incident to the risk manager.
- C. Check the condition of the patient.
- D. Complete an incident report.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare provider should first assess the patient to determine if any harm has occurred as a result of the medication error. Checking the patient's condition takes precedence as it allows for immediate intervention if necessary. Notifying the provider (choice A) can come later once the patient's condition is assessed. Reporting to the risk manager (choice B) and completing an incident report (choice D) are important steps but should follow the initial assessment of the patient to ensure timely and appropriate actions are taken.
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