ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?
- A. 18.5
- B. 24.9
- C. 25
- D. 32
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Increased thirst
- B. Fatigue
- C. Weight gain
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. Fatigue, along with symptoms like shakiness and irritability, are common signs of hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (Choice A) is more indicative of hyperglycemia. Weight gain (Choice C) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common sign of hypoglycemia.
3. A nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after a vaginal delivery and notes that the client's uterus is boggy and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Assist the client to void
- B. Massage the uterus
- C. Administer oxytocin
- D. Encourage breastfeeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A boggy and displaced uterus is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting effectively. The priority intervention is to assist the client to void. By emptying the bladder, the uterus can return to midline and become firm. Massaging the uterus or administering oxytocin may be necessary but should come after addressing the bladder distention. Encouraging breastfeeding is important for uterine contraction but is not the priority in this situation.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.
- A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
- B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
- C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.
5. A client is being taught about the use of nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Take it with food
- B. Place the tablet under the tongue
- C. It can be stored in the refrigerator
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue. Nitroglycerin tablets are meant for sublingual absorption during angina episodes to provide quick relief. Option A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should not be taken with food. Option C is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be stored in a cool, dark place, not in the refrigerator. Option D is incorrect because nitroglycerin can have side effects, including headaches, dizziness, and low blood pressure.
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