Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Signs of superinfection
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

2. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. INR levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.

3. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?

• A. Skin turgor displays tenting
• B. Flat anterior fontanel
• C. Cool, mottled skin
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.

4. While reviewing the medical record of a client with unstable angina, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. BP 106/62 mm Hg, Temp 38°C (100.4°F), HR 112/min, Resp rate 26/min, urine output 90 mL/hr
• B. Skin is cool and moist with pallor
• C. Bilateral breath sounds with crackles heard at bases of lungs
• D. Creatinine kinase 100 units/L, C-reactive protein 0.8 mg/dL, Myoglobin 88 mcg/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should report these vital signs to the provider immediately as they indicate increased temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, which are signs of possible infection or systemic inflammatory response. This could exacerbate the client's unstable angina and needs prompt evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as the vital signs in option A and do not directly indicate a worsening condition in the context of unstable angina.

5. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

• A. Heart rate 120/min
• B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
• D. Skin turgor is normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

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