ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Fasting blood glucose
- B. Carbohydrate intake
- C. Hematocrit
- D. Weight
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Weight. Desmopressin can cause fluid retention, so monitoring the client's weight is crucial to detect signs of water intoxication or overhydration, which can occur with the medication. Monitoring fasting blood glucose (choice A) is not directly related to desmopressin use in diabetes insipidus. Carbohydrate intake (choice B) is important for diabetes management but is not specifically relevant to monitoring desmopressin therapy. Hematocrit (choice C) is not typically influenced by desmopressin use in diabetes insipidus.
2. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit sodium intake
- C. Avoid potassium supplements
- D. Increase protein intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high-calorie, low-protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?
- A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes
- B. Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding
- C. Steak, French fries, corn
- D. Chicken breast, mashed potatoes, spinach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chicken breast provides a low-fat protein source, and mashed potatoes and spinach provide high-calorie nutrients suitable for managing liver failure. Option A (Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes) is high in protein, which is not suitable for a low-protein diet. Option B (Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding) contains high protein and may not be appropriate for the client. Option C (Steak, French fries, corn) is high in protein and fat, which are not recommended for this client's dietary requirements.
4. A nurse on a postpartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who gave birth 1 day ago and needs Rho(D) immune globulin
- B. A client who gave birth 3 days ago and reports breast fullness
- C. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago and reports an increase in urinary output
- D. A client who gave birth 8 hours ago and is saturating a perineal pad every hour
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should see the client saturating a perineal pad every hour first. This client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention. The other options describe clients with less urgent needs. The client needing Rho(D) immune globulin can wait, the breast fullness in the client who gave birth 3 days ago can be addressed after managing the postpartum hemorrhage, and an increase in urinary output in a client who gave birth 12 hours ago is not indicative of an immediate emergency like postpartum hemorrhage.
5. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
- B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
- C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
- D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.
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