Nursing Elites

1. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?

• A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
• B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
• C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
• D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.

2. A client who has a new prosthesis for an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg needs teaching on its use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Wear the prosthesis for 2 hours at a time
• B. Remove the prosthesis every other day
• C. Apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day
• D. Elevate the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day. This helps the client adjust to and maintain mobility. Choice A is incorrect because wearing the prosthesis for only 2 hours at a time may not be sufficient for proper adjustment. Choice B is incorrect as removing the prosthesis every other day is not a standard practice and may hinder the client's mobility. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis is unnecessary and not a recommended practice.

3. A client with diabetes is being discharged. What is an essential teaching point?

• A. Monitor blood sugar levels once a week
• B. Instruct the client to administer insulin before meals
• C. Teach the client to exercise regularly to maintain glucose control
• D. Administer oral hypoglycemics as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to administer insulin before meals is a crucial teaching point for a client with diabetes. This action ensures proper glucose management by helping to control blood sugar levels. Monitoring blood sugar levels once a week (Choice A) may not be frequent enough to manage diabetes effectively. While regular exercise (Choice C) is beneficial for glucose control, the immediate administration of insulin is more critical at the time of discharge. Administering oral hypoglycemics as needed (Choice D) is inappropriate as it does not address the need for insulin administration for a client being discharged.

4. A client is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Inhale rapidly through the mouth after pressing down on the inhaler
• B. Exhale completely before pressing down on the inhaler
• C. Hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling
• D. Inhale slowly while pressing down on the inhaler

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling when using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. This action ensures proper medication absorption in the lungs. Inhaling rapidly (choice A) may cause the medication to impact the mouth/throat rather than the lungs. Exhaling completely before inhalation (choice B) does not optimize medication delivery. Inhaling slowly (choice D) may not allow the medication to reach the lungs effectively.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

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