ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?
- A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
- B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
- C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
- D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.
2. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
- C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
- D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.
3. A client has undergone a myelogram, and a nurse is providing post-procedure care. Which action should be included in the nursing care plan?
- A. Encourage ambulation after the procedure
- B. Maintain the prone position for 12 hours
- C. Evaluate the client's distal pulses on the affected side
- D. Encourage oral fluid intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to include in the nursing care plan for a client post-myelogram is to evaluate the client's distal pulses on the affected side. This is crucial to assess circulation and detect any potential complications such as impaired blood flow or vascular issues. Encouraging ambulation after the procedure (Choice A) is not typically recommended immediately post-myelogram, as the client may need to rest. Maintaining the prone position for 12 hours (Choice B) is an outdated practice and is no longer part of standard care post-myelogram. Encouraging oral fluid intake (Choice D) is generally beneficial for hydration but is not a specific priority related to post-myelogram care.
4. A nurse is collecting data from a school-age child who has sustained a skull fracture. Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Nausea
- B. Confusion about own name
- C. Rapid pulse
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion, especially about one's own name, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure and should be addressed. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, but confusion about personal information is a more specific and critical indication that requires immediate attention. Rapid pulse may be a possible response to increased intracranial pressure, but it is not as specific as confusion about own name in this scenario.
5. When should a nurse suction a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Every 6 hours, regardless of distress signs
- B. When the client's respiratory rate drops below 10
- C. When the client shows signs of irritability
- D. When the client begins to cough or show signs of airway blockage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the client when they show signs of irritability. Signs of irritability, such as restlessness or agitation, can indicate the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. This early indicator suggests that there may be an accumulation of secretions affecting the client's airway. Suctioning should be performed promptly to maintain a clear airway and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because suctioning should be based on clinical signs and symptoms indicating the need for intervention, rather than a fixed schedule or specific vital sign parameters.
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