Nursing Elites

1. A client just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Place the client on cardiac monitoring
• B. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
• C. Provide standby assistance when getting out of bed
• D. Encourage foods high in potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when getting out of bed. Lisinopril can cause first-dose hypotension, leading to dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. Standby assistance helps ensure the client's safety when mobilizing. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) is not necessary unless there are specific indications for cardiac monitoring. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is not directly related to the side effects of lisinopril. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not the most immediate or appropriate intervention following the administration of lisinopril.

2. A nurse is teaching the parents of a newborn how to care for their child's uncircumcised penis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Retract the foreskin gently without force.
• B. Use a cotton swab to clean under the foreskin.
• C. Apply petroleum jelly to the foreskin.
• D. Wash the penis once a day with soap and water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to wash the penis once a day with soap and water. It is important to advise against forcefully retracting the foreskin as it can cause pain and injury. Using a cotton swab is not recommended as it can introduce foreign particles, and applying petroleum jelly is unnecessary and may lead to issues. Washing with soap and water is sufficient for hygiene without the need for additional products or manipulation of the foreskin.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Flumazenil
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose, including hydromorphone. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, and a significant decrease in respiratory rate from 16 to 6 breaths per minute indicates respiratory compromise. Naloxone should be administered promptly to reverse the effects of the opioid and restore normal respiratory function. Flumazenil (Choice B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for gastrointestinal decontamination in cases of overdose with certain substances, but it is not the appropriate intervention for opioid-induced respiratory depression. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and has no role in managing opioid overdose or respiratory depression.

4. A nurse on a rehab unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted patient who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which interprofessional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting?

• A. Physical therapist
• B. Speech-language pathologist
• C. Social worker
• D. Respiratory therapist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and treating swallowing disorders, making them the most appropriate consultant for a patient with difficulty swallowing following a stroke. While other interprofessional team members such as a physical therapist (choice A), social worker (choice C), and respiratory therapist (choice D) may play important roles in the patient's care, the primary focus for swallowing difficulties would be the speech-language pathologist.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

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