Nursing Elites

1. A client just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Place the client on cardiac monitoring
• B. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
• C. Provide standby assistance when getting out of bed
• D. Encourage foods high in potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when getting out of bed. Lisinopril can cause first-dose hypotension, leading to dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. Standby assistance helps ensure the client's safety when mobilizing. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) is not necessary unless there are specific indications for cardiac monitoring. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is not directly related to the side effects of lisinopril. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not the most immediate or appropriate intervention following the administration of lisinopril.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Increased urinary output
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

3. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:

• A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
• B. Probable sign of pregnancy
• C. Positive sign of pregnancy
• D. Possible sign of pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.

4. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. BUN 35 mg/dL
• B. Hgb 15 g/dL
• C. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL
• D. Hct 37%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A BUN of 35 mg/dL indicates potential kidney impairment, which is a concern in preeclampsia due to compromised renal function. This finding warrants further evaluation by the provider. High BUN levels may suggest reduced kidney function, a common complication associated with preeclampsia. Hgb, Bilirubin, and Hct levels are within normal ranges and are not directly indicative of kidney impairment or preeclampsia in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated BUN level to the healthcare provider for prompt management and monitoring.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Nasal congestion
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.

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