ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
2. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. What is the next appropriate nursing action?
- A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Have the client lie down and stay calm.
- D. Give the client aspirin 325 mg to chew.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If chest pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin, it is appropriate to administer a second dose while continuing to monitor the client's response. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve angina symptoms by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart. Reassessing the client's response and providing a second dose may be necessary to achieve adequate pain relief and improve blood flow to the heart. Administering another dose of nitroglycerin is the next appropriate step in managing angina symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may be necessary if the client's condition worsens or if there are other concerning symptoms. Having the client lie down and stay calm (Choice C) is generally recommended but addressing the ongoing chest pain takes precedence. Giving the client aspirin 325 mg to chew (Choice D) is beneficial for suspected myocardial infarction but is not the immediate action indicated for persistent angina symptoms.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has a latex allergy. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a potential risk for an allergic reaction?
- A. Cefoxitin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Erythromycin
- D. Metronidazole
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cefoxitin. Cefoxitin can contain latex in the stopper of the vial, which may pose a risk for allergic reaction in individuals with latex sensitivity. Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, and Metronidazole do not typically contain latex components in their formulations. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in identifying and avoiding medications with latex components to prevent adverse reactions in patients with known latex allergies.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for which potential complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium chloride supplementation aims to increase potassium levels in individuals with hypokalemia. However, excessive administration can lead to hyperkalemia, which can be a serious and potentially life-threatening complication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent this adverse outcome. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is the condition being treated, so it is not a complication of treatment. Hypernatremia (Choice C) refers to high sodium levels and is not directly related to the administration of potassium chloride. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not a common complication associated with potassium chloride administration in hypokalemia.
5. The healthcare professional is reinforcing teaching for a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will keep my legs elevated on pillows while resting.
- B. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
- C. I will wear loose-fitting, comfortable shoes.
- D. I will avoid exposure to cold temperatures.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Elevating the legs can decrease blood flow in clients with PAD, worsening symptoms. Therefore, advising the client to keep the legs elevated on pillows while resting is incorrect and can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is correct as avoiding crossing legs helps prevent circulation restriction. Choice C is correct as wearing loose-fitting shoes promotes circulation. Choice D is correct as avoiding exposure to cold temperatures helps prevent vasoconstriction, which can worsen PAD symptoms.
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