ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
2. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Apical pulse
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.
3. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
- A. Cesarean birth
- B. Vaginal birth
- C. Anemia
- D. Multiparity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.
4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a suspected infection?
- A. Monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells
- B. Monitor blood pressure and check for fever
- C. Assess for changes in mental status and monitor urine output
- D. Administer antibiotics and monitor for changes in mental status
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with a suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells. Elevated temperature indicates a potential infection, and increased white blood cells are a sign of inflammation and the body's response to an infection. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) and checking for fever (choice B) are not as specific indicators of infection as monitoring temperature and white blood cell count. Assessing changes in mental status and monitoring urine output (choice C) are important aspects of patient assessment but may not directly indicate a suspected infection. Administering antibiotics (choice D) should only be done after a confirmed diagnosis of a bacterial infection, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other adverse effects.
5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about a clear liquid diet. What should the client avoid?
- A. Lemon-lime sports drinks
- B. Orange sherbet
- C. Black coffee
- D. Ginger ale
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ginger ale. A clear liquid diet includes fluids that are see-through and easily digestible. Ginger ale is a carbonated beverage that is allowed on a clear liquid diet. Orange sherbet, choice B, is not suitable for a clear liquid diet as it contains dairy products and solid particles, which are not transparent. Lemon-lime sports drinks, choice A, may contain added colorings or particles that are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Black coffee, choice C, is also not recommended on a clear liquid diet as it is not a clear liquid and contains substances that may be hard to digest.
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