Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for observation and has full range of motion. Which is the best manner to encourage the client to void?

• A. Urinal
• B. Bedpan
• C. Bedside Commode
• D. Client Bathroom

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Client Bathroom. Encouraging the client to use the bathroom is the best way to promote independence and privacy, maintaining normal function. In this case, since the client has full range of motion, using the client bathroom would be the most appropriate choice. Options A, B, and C (Urinal, Bedpan, Bedside Commode) are not the best choices as they may restrict the client's independence and privacy, which can impact their psychological well-being and normal voiding function.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the contractions are too frequent (tachysystole), and the fetal heart rate is elevated. Tachysystole can lead to decreased oxygen perfusion to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to both the mother and fetus. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the current situation, potentially leading to further complications. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the tachysystole and elevated fetal heart rate, making it an inappropriate choice.

3. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. INR levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 10 mg
• B. 20 mg
• C. 30 mg
• D. 40 mg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. Next, multiply the weight in kilograms by the dosage: 4 mg/kg x 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since the total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, each dose would be 20 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice A (10 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight-based dosage. Choice C (30 mg) and Choice D (40 mg) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the dose based on the weight of the toddler and the prescribed dosage per kg.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client’s respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

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