Nursing Elites

1. A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?

• A. Assist the client into a comfortable position.
• B. Observe the perineum for signs of crowning.
• C. Have the client pant during the next contractions.
• D. Help the client to the bathroom to void.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having the client pant during contractions is crucial to prevent premature pushing, particularly when the cervix is not fully dilated. Premature pushing can lead to cervical swelling and may impede the progress of labor. It is important to allow the cervix to fully dilate before active pushing to prevent complications. Assisting the client into a comfortable position (Choice A) may not address the urge to push and can lead to premature pushing. Observing the perineum for signs of crowning (Choice B) is important but does not address the immediate need to prevent premature pushing. Helping the client to the bathroom to void (Choice D) does not address the urge to push and may not be appropriate at this stage of labor.

2. A full-term newborn is being assessed by a nurse 15 minutes after birth. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Heart rate 168/min
• B. Respiratory rate 18/min
• C. Tremors
• D. Fine crackles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A newborn's respiratory rate can vary between 20 to 100 breaths per minute during the initial phase after birth. A respiratory rate as low as 18 breaths per minute at this early stage requires immediate nursing intervention. This finding necessitates further assessment to ensure adequate oxygenation and respiratory function. The other options, heart rate of 168/min, tremors, and fine crackles, are within normal limits for a full-term newborn and do not require immediate intervention.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer vitamin K by IM injection to a newborn. The medication should be administered into which of the following muscles?

• A. Vastus lateralis
• B. Ventrogluteal
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Deltoid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vitamin K is typically administered in the vastus lateralis muscle of a newborn to prevent bleeding disorders. The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to its size and accessibility, allowing for easy and safe administration. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more commonly used in adults due to better muscle mass and less risk of injury to nearby structures. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults for IM injections, as it is a well-developed muscle suitable for injections in these populations.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to collect a blood specimen from a newborn via a heel stick. Which of the following techniques should the professional use to help minimize the pain of the procedure for the newborn?

• A. Apply a cool pack to the heel for 10 minutes prior to the puncture.
• B. Request a prescription for IM analgesic.
• C. Use a manual lancet to pierce the skin.
• D. Place the newborn skin-to-skin on the mother's chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the newborn skin-to-skin on the mother's chest is an effective technique to significantly decrease the newborn's pain level and anxiety during a heel stick procedure. This approach provides comfort, warmth, and familiarity to the newborn, promoting a sense of security and reducing distress. It is important for the healthcare professional to implement this technique before, during, and after the procedure to optimize pain management and support newborn well-being. The other options, such as applying a cool pack, requesting an IM analgesic prescription, and using a manual lancet, are not appropriate for minimizing pain in a newborn during a heel stick procedure. Applying a cool pack may cause vasoconstriction and increase pain, requesting an IM analgesic for a routine heel stick is excessive, and using a manual lancet without additional comforting measures may not adequately address the newborn's pain and anxiety.

5. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

Similar Questions