ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?
- A. Assist the client into a comfortable position.
- B. Observe the perineum for signs of crowning.
- C. Have the client pant during the next contractions.
- D. Help the client to the bathroom to void.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Having the client pant during contractions is crucial to prevent premature pushing, particularly when the cervix is not fully dilated. Premature pushing can lead to cervical swelling and may impede the progress of labor. It is important to allow the cervix to fully dilate before active pushing to prevent complications. Assisting the client into a comfortable position (Choice A) may not address the urge to push and can lead to premature pushing. Observing the perineum for signs of crowning (Choice B) is important but does not address the immediate need to prevent premature pushing. Helping the client to the bathroom to void (Choice D) does not address the urge to push and may not be appropriate at this stage of labor.
2. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?
- A. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating
- B. Avoid fluids between meals
- C. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods
- D. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.
3. Which type of infectious diseases are required to be reported to the health department?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus infections, including MRSA
- B. Severe cases of flu-like symptoms
- C. Common colds and non-severe respiratory infections
- D. Only contagious diseases like meningitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus infections, including MRSA. Severe infections like MRSA are required to be reported to the health department as they pose a significant public health risk. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because severe flu-like symptoms, common colds, and non-severe respiratory infections, and only contagious diseases like meningitis do not fall under the category of infectious diseases that must be reported to the health department.
4. The valve that controls the passage of chyme from the small intestine into the cecum is called the:
- A. ileocecal valve.
- B. pyloric valve.
- C. cardiac valve.
- D. hepatic valve.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ileocecal valve. The ileocecal valve is located between the small intestine and the cecum, controlling the passage of chyme. The pyloric valve (choice B) is located between the stomach and the small intestine, regulating the passage of food from the stomach to the small intestine. The cardiac valve (choice C) refers to the valve between the esophagus and the stomach. The hepatic valve (choice D) is not a correct term related to the passage of chyme from the small intestine into the cecum.
5. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.
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